What language was Jesus speaking when He said that? Aramaic, probably? Recorded in Greek of course, so there's one translation. Translating to English makes 2 removes from the original. Jesus and the Apostles often quoted the LXX, which was one remove from the Hebrew, then translated to English makes 2 removes from the Hebrew.
My "argument" could be an argument, but you don't seem interested in treating it as an argument, even a bad one. Is there reason for that? Is your posting of 24:35 meant to mean that it refutes the jots and tiddles? Does scripture refute scripture? Not sure what your argument-from-scripture is or what your argument is even arguing.
I don't know you but everyone seems to assume you're a KJV-preferred proponent, though I can't tell from your vague messages. Anyway, I can't make heads or tails of this thread and I'm not intending to show disrespect here, just wondering. What do you make of jots and tiddles, which only exist in Hebrew?
Regards,
You were serious with that Matthew reference?
You were also serious about biting?
Using emoji's is serious?
How about something plain for me, a dummy, like:
Heaven and earth shall pass away but my words will not pass away.
Matthew 24:35
But yes I was too glib with His words also about the jots and tiddles,
and I apologize for that.
For verily I say unto you,
Till heaven and earth pass,
one jot or one tiddle shall in no wise
pass from the law,
till all be fulfilled.
Matthew 5:18
Has all been fulfilled?
No.
Therefore, any linguistic or grammatical explanations of this not being true any more are not valid.
Do we then make void the law through faith?
God forbid:
yea, we establish the law.
Romans 3:31
Direct to direct bible verses help me think through things.
I don't know Greek but I am a Christian by way of hearing the word of God in English.
Did you hear the word of God when you were saved?
Was it in Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, or English?