Iconoclast, I have offered great amount of passages and contextual quoting of Scriptures on these threads. You know that I am careful to not quote out of context of a passage. You and I are both known to place the meanings of verses within the context of which they come.
Now, concerning your specific statements:
Why did He Suffer. Because the prophets stated that He would. That is one of the signs of the messiah. The Jews of this day think that perhaps there will be two - one who suffers and one who becomes the ruling kind. Fits right in with the prophetic statements concerning their agreement with the antichrist of the last days.
He also came to suffer for that was the Father's will, "For this I came into the world" is His own words.
Was it purposeful? Of course. He being totally innocent, purer that any sacrifice, and both the Great High Priest and the Sacrifice fulfilled all that was appointed by the Father for Him to say and do.
Galatians 4:
3So also, when
we were children, we were enslaved under the basic principles of the world.
4But when
the time had fully come, God sent His Son, born of a woman, born under the law,
5to redeem those under the law, that we might receive our adoption as sons.
6And
because you are sons, God sent the Spirit of His Son into our hearts, crying out, “Abba, Father!”
7So you are no longer a slave, but a son; and since you are a son, you are also an heir through God.
At what point was I to read that this was done by God reigning divine justice in vengeance filled wrath upon the Son for our benefit?
God is not obligated to redeem any, but He chooses to redeem those "under the law, that we might receive our adoption as sons" to His purpose and for His work.
So the real issue isn't that Christ suffered, nor that He gave His blood and died.
The REAL issue that PSA cannot answer for is the part concerning the divine wrath.
At no place in Scripture is a proper sacrifice met with divine wrath. Judgement, yes. If the priest or the blood was unworthy, judgement fell upon them. But Christ was not unworthy, nor the blood polluted (which is why He refused an intoxicant when offered).
My problem with the WORD substitution is as I expressed to JonC, most consider a substitute as a temporary replacement or some quid pro quo exchange. Two problems with this thinking.
1) Christ was not a substitute but a permanent replacement for the OT sacrifice. If such satisfied temporarily in the OT, then the Christ as Hebrews points out certainly satisfied permanently.
2) Christ did not exchange anything, because He is divine. He redeemed the lost, not by payment to God or the Devil but by His own authority. He in effect as the owner of all chooses of His good pleasure. He had no need to substitute as PSA sometimes portrays.
This is shown in the previous passage I shared from Colossians:
15The
Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16For
in Him all things were created, things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities. All things were created through Him and for Him.
17He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.
18And He is the head of the body, the church; He is the beginning and firstborn from among the dead, so that in all things He may have preeminence.
19For God was pleased to have all His fullness dwell in Him,
20and through Him to reconcile to Himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven,
by making peace through the blood of His cross.
21Once you were alienated from God and were hostile in your minds, engaging in evil deeds.
22But now He has reconciled you by Christ’s physical body through death to present you holy, unblemished, and blameless in His presence—
23if indeed you continue in your faith, established and firm, not moved from the hope of the gospel you heard, which has been proclaimed to every creature under heaven, and of which I, Paul, have become a servant.
Not that Paul states how the reconciliation takes place: by the physical body of Christ through death.
Again, where is the demand by PSA for divine justice obliging the wrath of God to be poured out upon the Son?
It isn't there! It is not found in the Scriptures, which is the point of rejecting PSA as unscriptural.