Understanding from a narrative a simultaneous event.

[37818]

The narrative where the close order of two events are swapted. The swapted events can be understood to have taken place together simultaneously.

Matthew 27:50-51, ". . . Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent; . . ."

Mark 15:37-38, ". . . And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost. And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom. . . ."

Luke 23:45-46, ". . . and the veil of the temple was rent in the midst. And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. . . ."

John 19:30, ". . . he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. . . ."

 

[Deacon]

The two places mentioned are separated from each other.

No single person could have seen both events.

The Gospel writers connected the events for a purpose.

The exact timing was unimportant.

Rob

 

[37818]

The two places mentioned are separated from each other.

No single person could have seen both events.

The Gospel writers connected the events for a purpose.

The exact timing was unimportant.

Rob

God being the author of His word would know.
2 Timothy 3:16.

 

[agedman]

Hebrews 9 and 10 give the time sequence.

The veil was ripped when Christ sprinkled His blood upon the real altar of God, not the type on earth.

 

[37818]

Hebrews 9 and 10 give the time sequence.

The veil was ripped when Christ sprinkled His blood upon the real altar of God, not the type on earth.

No. Christ finished what He said He finished before He was given the vinegar, John 19:28. Hebrews 9:12 did not take place until 40 days after His resurrection.

 

[agedman]

No. Christ finished what He said He finished before He was given the vinegar, John 19:28. Hebrews 9:12 did not take place until 40 days after His resurrection.

I disagree.

But it is of little worth to debate.

 

[37818]

I disagree.

But it is of little worth to debate.

Fair enough.

 

[percho]

I am going with simultaneously.

for what the law was not able to do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, did condemn the sin in the flesh, Rom 8:3
which way he did initiate for us -- new and living, through the vail, that is, his flesh -- Heb 10:20

Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death. James 1:18
When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. John 19:30

When was, the sin, condemned in the flesh? Through the vail, that is, his flesh?

At Death?

 

[Van]

Bible study issue:
If a translation presents two actions, one before the other in the text, can we assume the first occurred before the second? The answer is no.

If the presentment order is reversed in two parallel texts, can we assume the actions occurred simultaneously? The answer is no.

In the OP example, order of same actions reversed in Matthew and Luke, the verb tense indicates accomplished actions but do not indicate sequence. Either order or simultaneous action is possible.

Context indicates both actions occurred "about the sixth (noon) hour."

 

[37818]

When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: . . .

And what was finished was finished before He received the vinegar, ". . . knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . ."