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Featured My (JonC) view of the Atonement

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by JonC, Mar 12, 2022.

  1. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    No need to slander MM..he is correct after all.
     
  2. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    The difficulty (imo) is how one translated “huper” (hyper) and, if I recall correctly it is never translated “instead” but generally “for.”

    However, what I also do not recall is if the verse(s) in question actually use “huper” or some other word.

    In English, we often interchange instead and for, but the Greek is far more intricate in selecting words, and I just don’t trust my ability to be consistent in such work.
     
    #42 agedman, Mar 13, 2022
    Last edited: Mar 13, 2022
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  3. Aaron

    Aaron Member
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    Chill dude. How many threads have you started on the Trinity?
     
  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Because it is THE most difficult Doctrine! The Death of Jesus Christ is NOT!
     
  5. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    I wasn’t going to dignify this rant, but then thought some might misunderstand.

    1) The recent threads were on the presentation of PSA theory, the history, and lack of Scripture support. It matters little if you disagree, but that was the theme of the threads.

    2) Your opinion about the theme of the PSA does not provide Scripture proof. If you actually have such proof, start a thread and produce it. We have from the first post desired proof. Not opinion, though we don’t mind opinion, but Specific Scripture proof.

    3) You are not the sole authority on the BB in languages. Thankfully there are others, so do not become puffed up in your own presentations.


    You have every right to correct my mistakes in language work.

    But if you start showing attitude about it, that is another matter.

    Not everyone desires to color within the lines someone else draws.

    State your thinking graciously, with as little offense as you have in you, and do not neglect to display patience, gentleness, kindness, meekness, …
     
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  6. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    You don’t think so?

    You have the death of Christ all figured out?

    You have the trinity all figured out, too?

    ok
     
  7. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Except THE DICTIONARY states otherwise.

    You and @Martin Marprelate are making up meanings for words. You say "for" means "instead of" because "behalf" means "instead of". Where do you get this nonsense?

    It is "double-speak". Look up the words. Neither the Greek nor the English means "instead of".
     
  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    No. @Martin Marprelate says the English word "behalf" or "on one's behalf" means "instead of". Look it up in the dictionary. Guess what it does not mean.

    He uses "behalf" correctly in a sentence (speaking on behalf of a group", but even here it dies not mean "instead of", it means....as the dictionary says....as a representative of (the use I have been arguing).

    You use double-speak to force your theories and philosophy onto Scripture.

    As far as @Martin Marprelate goes, I am unaware of his education. Perhaps he (and you) like me, studied Greek at a graduate level. I suffered through years of Greek as a grad student. It was not enjoyable (but I graduated with honors). But his approaching that topic is on him, not me.


    Simply put, words have meaning. It is wrong of you to change the meanings of words to suit your traditions.
     
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  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    The same is true of "so" in John 3:16 (it means "thusly", but some take it to mean "so much"). The word "for" in the passages of this topic ("while we were sinners, Christ died for us", "Christ died for our sins", "He is the Propitiation for our sins") simply does not mean "instead of". The word itself does not mean "instead of".
     
  10. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    This is getting wearisome. Let me give you three words that will help you in understanding the meanings of words in any language:
    Context, context and context. Within a semantic range, which, in the case of most Greek prepositions is very large, the context will always determine the meaning.

    'Christ died for our sins.' Obviously, it does not mean that He died instead of our sins. Nor does it mean that He died on behalf of our sins. Our sins don't need any help from Him! He died; we don't (John 11:25-26); He died in our place because of our sins. He died that we might live forever. He died instead of us. Got it now?
     
  11. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I got it long ago. You are changing the meaning based in a contest YOU are supplying.

    Scripture does not support your tradition so you change God's Word. What makes it worse is there is absolutely no reason (in the context) for you to change the meaning. The passage as it stands does not disprove your additions to Scripture.
     
  12. Martin Marprelate

    Martin Marprelate Well-Known Member
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    I do not, and never have said that that 'one one's behalf' means 'instead of.' 'On behalf of always' has a certain meaning, 'for the benefit of' or possibly 'as a representative of.' But I have shown you multiple examples - real examples of real language - where it must inevitably mean 'in the place of' or 'instead of.' Do you want me to list them all again? I will if it will help you understand. The context will help determine the exact meaning.
    One of us does that, but I think you'll find it is not I.

    You ask about my education in the Greek language. I answered this once before, in response, I think, to you (I don't know who else would have asked me).
    I studied Classical Greek for seven years at school and university as an unsaved youngster. 20+ years later, when I was saved, I worked up my Greek again with the help of a little part-time seminary I attended, and I learned the differences between Classical and koine Greek (not actually that many).

    What I will say to you is that if you do not understand that context determines meaning, then however many years you studied Greek or any other language, you wasted your time.
     
  13. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Context determines meaning is true no matter the language. Even in the first language people don’t always pick up the context. Working in Scriptures it is all the more true.

    How many times have we all been confronted with a poster who grabs a verse no taking the time to see if it really applies.

    This is one reason I do much enjoy reading from you, your patience is remarkable.

    Classical Greek! I don’t know of any schools in the US that teach that anymore.
     
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  14. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    The problem is the context does not warrant changing the meaning of the Greek word. Christ died for us. This does not, and cannot, mean Christ died "instead of us". Even of Christ did die instead of us (which is a false doctrine) the idea is not supported in that passage. The odd thing is....we still die, we share in Christ's death and resurrection.

    You are reading into the passage, period. This is strange here because even with your corruption of God's Word it would not prove Penal Substitution Theory correct.

    I studied koine Greek. I don't know what you studied, but if you believe the verse "Christ died for us" means "Christ died instead of us" then I question your retention.
     
  15. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Context is important. But context does not change the meanings of words. If I say "Let's eat lamb" this does not mean "let's eat pizza" just because you may prefer pizza.

    There is no reason to assume "for" means anything other than its meaning as used through the passages. It means "for", "on one's behalf" or "as one's representative".

    You are simply confronted with the fact nowhere is your tradition supported in Scrioture soyou narrow down to redefine this one word. You provide the context.

    But this one word is the least of the problems with your theory. It is a false doctrine, a myth, that has done damage to Christianity. It is a theory relatively new to Christianity. It is reformed Roman Catholic doctrine. It is anti-biblical because not only is it extra-biblical (adds to Scripture) but it also corrupts what is there. As a "gospel" it is "another gospel" than given in Scripture. It is pure philosophy with a Christian theme.
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Context is important. But context does not change the meanings of words. If I say "Let's eat lamb" this does not mean "let's eat pizza" just because you may prefer pizza.

    There is no reason to assume "for" means anything other than its meaning as used through the passages. It means "for", "on one's behalf" or "as one's representative".

    You are simply confronted with the fact nowhere is your tradition supported in Scrioture soyou narrow down to redefine this one word. You provide the context.

    But this one word is the least of the problems with your theory. It is a false doctrine, a myth, that has done damage to Christianity. It is a theory relatively new to Christianity. It is reformed Roman Catholic doctrine. It is anti-biblical because not only is it extra-bibkical (adds to Scripture) but it also corrupts what is there. As a "gospel" it is "another gospel" than given in Scripture. It is pure philosophy with a Chrustian theme.
     
  17. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    There are those who have the gift of languages.

    In the verse from 1 Corinthians 15:
    For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures,
    The two “for” are two different Greek words.

    I wonder if it would be good to find a translation that when faced with using the same English word twice in the same area would consider replacing one so the context was better discerned by the less skilled reader.

    In this case, the above might read,
    “Accordingly” I delivered to you as of primary importance what I also received: that Christ died “in behalf of” our sins in accordance to the Scriptures.
    The “for” word (hyper) is a stand alone can not always be discerned from another “for” word - (peri), or for “gar” which is a conjunction. “Peri” is often used concerning people matters.

    Anyway, I think I am rambling.
     
    #57 agedman, Mar 14, 2022
    Last edited: Mar 14, 2022
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  18. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    On what basis and how was the wrath and judgement of God due to us propitiated then?
     
  19. JesusFan

    JesusFan Well-Known Member

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    What does it mean to JonC when He who knew no sin became sin for and on our behalf?
     
  20. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Christ was never a sinner, therefore no need for wrath.
     
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