Fact that 1560 Geneva Bible is better than 1611 edition in some places

[Logos1560]

You would do well to rethink your attacks against the word of God, the KJV.

You fail to prove your bogus allegation that I am supposedly attacking the word of God. I have answered and exposed your misleading and incorrect allegations against believers that would bear false witness. Perhaps you would do well to rethink your disobedience to the Scriptures in bearing false witness.

The truth remains that the KJV is not exclusively and solely the word of God translated into English. The word of God had been translated into English many years before 1611. The KJV is one English translation that was also a revision of several earlier English translations. The KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense and way that the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English. The KJV is not a revision of earlier English Bibles that were not the word of God translated into English as your incorrect reasoning or tragic logic would in effect suggest or imply.
Your inconsistent reasoning would attack the pre-1611 word of God in English just as it would attack the word of God in present-day English.

The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that words added by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God. The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that any errors introduced by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God.

It has been demonstrated soundly in this thread that in at least some places the 1560 Geneva Bible was better and more accurate than the 1611 edition of the KJV. You have not answered nor refuted my factually correct point of this thread that you seek to dodge and avoid.

Accurately translated words present the meaning of the absolutely pure inspired original-language words of Scripture better than inaccurately translated words do.

 

[JD731]

You fail to prove your bogus allegation that I am supposedly attacking the word of God. I have answered and exposed your misleading and incorrect allegations against believers that would bear false witness. Perhaps you would do well to rethink your disobedience to the Scriptures in bearing false witness.

The truth remains that the KJV is not exclusively and solely the word of God translated into English. The word of God had been translated into English many years before 1611. The KJV is one English translation that was also a revision of several earlier English translations. The KJV is the word of God translated into English in the same sense and way that the pre-1611 English Bibles are the word of God translated into English. The KJV is not a revision of earlier English Bibles that were not the word of God translated into English as your incorrect reasoning or tragic logic would in effect suggest or imply.
Your inconsistent reasoning would attack the pre-1611 word of God in English just as it would attack the word of God in present-day English.

The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that words added by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God. The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that any errors introduced by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God.

It has been demonstrated soundly in this thread that in at least some places the 1560 Geneva Bible was better and more accurate than the 1611 edition of the KJV. You have not answered nor refuted my factually correct point of this thread that you seek to dodge and avoid.

Accurately translated words present the meaning of the absolutely pure inspired original-language words of Scripture better than inaccurately translated words do.

Are you making the claim that the word of God is properly translated either in the KJV or the Geneva 1560 and if one possessed both of these translations he would then have the word of God? Isn't this the argument by all new translations proponents, that new translations are better and more accurate than those old translations because they are translations of better and older texts?

The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that words added by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God. The scriptural truth remains unrefuted that any errors introduced by men are not the absolutely pure inspired words of God.

It has been demonstrated soundly in this thread that in at least some places the 1560 Geneva Bible was better and more accurate than the 1611 edition of the KJV. You have not answered nor refuted my factually correct point of this thread that you seek to dodge and avoid.

Who gets to decide your words are better? Considering the unity of the scriptures and the continuity of doctrine through words in scriptures and over a vast amount of time and cultural changes, you cannot claim that no doctrine is effected by different words unless you are a prophet and you are getting this info from God himself.

 

[Logos1560]

Who gets to decide your words are better?

I have nowhere suggested that my opinions nor your opinions decide which English renderings are better.

The truth remains that the preserved original-language words of Scriptures are the proper standard and greater authority which should determine which English renderings are better or more accurate.

Those original-language words were already soundly used to make several corrections and revisions to the 1611 edition of the KJV, and they can be used to make English translations in present-day English and to make revisions or corrections to them.

 

[JesusFan]

Well, you are standing alone on this thread because the other posters claim that these translations have as much authority as the original language manuscripts. Yes, I know, if this is true then why are we worried about the original language manuscripts anymore. See some quotes below;








Now you are saying that no translation is the word of God with any authority and if one must have authority he must either learn the original languages or go ask some dufus that has learned the languages but cannot parse an English verb.

Some of the logic here is tragic. You want us to believe you are the sharpest knives in the drawer and you tout the original language manuscripts and English translations of it while your warn the readers to not believe they have authority. You need to think about what you are doing in the context of a righteous judgement in our futures.

2Co 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things [done] in [his] body, according to that he hath done, whether [it be] good or bad.

NONE here except those holding to KJVO would see any translation as having equal authority to the original Languages texts!

 

[JesusFan]

Are you making the claim that the word of God is properly translated either in the KJV or the Geneva 1560 and if one possessed both of these translations he would then have the word of God? Isn't this the argument by all new translations proponents, that new translations are better and more accurate than those old translations because they are translations of better and older texts?





Who gets to decide your words are better? Considering the unity of the scriptures and the continuity of doctrine through words in scriptures and over a vast amount of time and cultural changes, you cannot claim that no doctrine is effected by different words unless you are a prophet and you are getting this info from God himself.

Any translation that was properly made of the Original Languages texts would be the English word of the Lord to us, so Kjv/esv/Nkjv/Nas all are!

 

[JD731]

NONE here except those holding to KJVO would see any translation as having equal authority to the original Languages texts!

They have far more authority for me because I can read them. Tell me what specific command from God you have obeyed because you read it in the Greek language and we will go from there.

 

[JD731]

Any translation that was properly made of the Original Languages texts would be the English word of the Lord to us, so Kjv/esv/Nkjv/Nas all are!

You don't know this and you probably cannot agree with this but the ESV, the NKJV, NASV, all tell a lie in Hebrews 9:26. They say that the appearance of Jesus Christ to Israel at his first coming was the consummation of the ages. The KJV does not make such a claim. It says this was the end a singular age, the age of the law of Moses as God's operative principle of divine dealing with them as a people. The entire NT scriptures backs this KJV rendering up.


NASB Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been revealed to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

ESV
for then he would have had to suffer repeatedly since the foundation of the world. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

NKJV 26 He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world, but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

Romans 10:4
For Christ is the end of the law to everyone that believeth (as opposed to worketh).

2 Cor 3:1 Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or need we, as some others, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you?

2 Ye are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read of all men:

3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.

4 And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward:

5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God;

6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

7 But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:

8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?

9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.

10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth.

11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious.

12 Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech:

13 And not as Moses, which put a veil over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:

14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.

15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.

16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.

17 Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.


The end of the law ended the age but there are still ages to come.

Ephesians 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

 

[JesusFan]

They have far more authority for me because I can read them. Tell me what specific command from God you have obeyed because you read it in the Greek language and we will go from there.

Just because you are ignorant of the Greek and Hebrew scriptures would not invalidate the truth that they are in primacy and authority over any translation made off of them!

 

[JesusFan]

You don't know this and you probably cannot agree with this but the ESV, the NKJV, NASV, all tell a lie in Hebrews 9:26. They say that the appearance of Jesus Christ to Israel at his first coming was the consummation of the ages. The KJV does not make such a claim. It says this was the end a singular age, the age of the law of Moses as God's operative principle of divine dealing with them as a people. The entire NT scriptures backs this KJV rendering up.


NASB Heb 9:26 Otherwise, He would have needed to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now once at the consummation of the ages He has been revealed to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

ESV
for then he would have had to suffer repeatedly since the foundation of the world. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the ages to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

NKJV 26 He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.

26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world, but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.

Romans 10:4
For Christ is the end of the law to everyone that believeth (as opposed to worketh).

2 Cor 3:1 Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or need we, as some others, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you?

2 Ye are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read of all men:

3 Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart.

4 And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward:

5 Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God;

6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.

7 But if the ministration of death, written and engraven in stones, was glorious, so that the children of Israel could not stedfastly behold the face of Moses for the glory of his countenance; which glory was to be done away:

8 How shall not the ministration of the spirit be rather glorious?

9 For if the ministration of condemnation be glory, much more doth the ministration of righteousness exceed in glory.

10 For even that which was made glorious had no glory in this respect, by reason of the glory that excelleth.

11 For if that which is done away was glorious, much more that which remaineth is glorious.

12 Seeing then that we have such hope, we use great plainness of speech:

13 And not as Moses, which put a veil over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:

14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.

15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.

16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.

17 Now the Lord is that Spirit: and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.

18 But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.


The end of the law ended the age but there are still ages to come.

Ephesians 2:7
That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

The coming of the Messiah would bring in the new and final Covenant, and yes, would this be the consummation of this age of salvation!

 

[JD731]

Just because you are ignorant of the Greek and Hebrew scriptures would not invalidate the truth that they are in primacy and authority over any translation made off of them!

Who told you that?

 

[JD731]

The coming of the Messiah would bring in the new and final Covenant, and yes, would this be the consummation of this age of salvation!

The problem you are having is you are assigning meanings to words that are not true and applying illogical logic and unreasonable reasoning to the text.


What is the biblical meaning of the word consummate?


2 : the ultimate end : finish.

Consummation Definition & Meaning - Merriam-Webster

 

[Logos1560]

The problem you are having is you are assigning meanings to words that are not true and applying illogical logic and unreasonable reasoning to the text.

You believe assertions concerning the KJV that are not true, and your human KJV-only reasoning would apply illogical logic or unreasonable reasoning to verses as you read into verses KJV-only opinions that they do not state. Do you try to assign meanings to some words in the KJV that are not true when you may try to suggest that inspiration and preservation supposedly concern directly the KJV? Inspiration is a term for the supernatural process of the giving of the Scriptures to the prophets and apostles not for the human process involved in the making of the KJV. Do you assign a meaning to the term Bible translation that is not true and that is illogical as you may try to make apply your meaning to only one English Bible translation?

You try to divert from the clear subject of this thread as you refuse to admit the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is better than the 1611 edition of the KJV in at least some places. You will not accept the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is a Bible translation in the same sense and way that the 1611 KJV is a Bible translation.

 

[JesusFan]

Who told you that?

Told me what?

 

[JesusFan]

You believe assertions concerning the KJV that are not true, and your human KJV-only reasoning would apply illogical logic or unreasonable reasoning to verses as you read into verses KJV-only opinions that they do not state. Do you try to assign meanings to some words in the KJV that are not true when you may try to suggest that inspiration and preservation supposedly concern directly the KJV? Inspiration is a term for the supernatural process of the giving of the Scriptures to the prophets and apostles not for the human process involved in the making of the KJV. Do you assign a meaning to the term Bible translation that is not true and that is illogical as you may try to make apply your meaning to only one English Bible translation?

You try to divert from the clear subject of this thread as you refuse to admit the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is better than the 1611 edition of the KJV in at least some places. You will not accept the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is a Bible translation in the same sense and way that the 1611 KJV is a Bible translation.

The 1611 translators did indeed see the Geneva as being as much of a bible as their own Kjv!

 

[JD731]

Told me what?

To causally dismiss the information without comment that I gave you about Heb 9:26 in your favorite bibles says more about you than anything else you have said.

 

[JD731]

You believe assertions concerning the KJV that are not true, and your human KJV-only reasoning would apply illogical logic or unreasonable reasoning to verses as you read into verses KJV-only opinions that they do not state. Do you try to assign meanings to some words in the KJV that are not true when you may try to suggest that inspiration and preservation supposedly concern directly the KJV? Inspiration is a term for the supernatural process of the giving of the Scriptures to the prophets and apostles not for the human process involved in the making of the KJV. Do you assign a meaning to the term Bible translation that is not true and that is illogical as you may try to make apply your meaning to only one English Bible translation?

You try to divert from the clear subject of this thread as you refuse to admit the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is better than the 1611 edition of the KJV in at least some places. You will not accept the truth that the 1560 Geneva Bible is a Bible translation in the same sense and way that the 1611 KJV is a Bible translation.

If I admitted something that cannot be true if indeed there is a numerical structure to the scriptures, then I would be just like you. I am not like you.

It is the words of God that are inspired. The apostles and prophets of the NT just gave those words voice. That inspiration came from "the word of the Lord," whom I have already proven is a person and deserves our worship.

Lu 22:61 And the Lord turned, and looked upon Peter. And Peter remembered the word of the Lord, how he had said unto him, Before the cock crow, thou shalt deny me thrice.
Ac 8:25 And they, when they had testified and preached the word of the Lord, returned to Jerusalem, and preached the gospel in many villages of the Samaritans.
Ac 11:16 Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.
Ac 13:48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
Ac 13:49 And the word of the Lord was published throughout all the region.
Ac 15:35 Paul also and Barnabas continued in Antioch, teaching and preaching the word of the Lord, with many others also.
Ac 15:36 And some days after Paul said unto Barnabas, Let us go again and visit our brethren in every city where we have preached the word of the Lord, [and see] how they do.
Ac 16:32 And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house.
Ac 19:10 And this continued by the space of two years; so that all they which dwelt in Asia heard the word of the Lord Jesus, both Jews and Greeks.
1Th 1:8 For from you sounded out the word of the Lord not only in Macedonia and Achaia, but also in every place your faith to GodThis is-ward is spread abroad; so that we need not to speak any thing.
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
2Th 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may have [free] course, and be glorified, even as [it is] with you:
1Pe 1:25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.

You and others on this forum have chided us bible believers for worshipping the bible. Here in 2 Thess 3:1 is the church glorifying the word of the Lord.

There are numerical considerations in this particular revelation of Jesus Christ. The word of the Lord is mentioned 13 times in the NT. All of these mentions in the NT are after the Jewish rejection of Jesus Christ as Messiah and King. Paul is the thirteenth apostle, he writes 13 letters to gentiles, and he mentions the word gentiles 42 times in his letters and the number 42 is in the KJV 13 times. Thirteen is the number God associates consistently to sinners and transgressors. I can prove that to you because over a lifetime I have proven it to myself.

The number 11 is associated with Israel - Falling short of the perfect government of God
The number 12 Is the number for God's perfect government
The number 13 is associated with those who over step the government of God - transgressors (the word has 13 letters)

You guys probably haven't noticed that Jesus Christ came preaching the kingdom of God is at hand and he chose 12 apostles, and 70 elders after the model he established in the wilderness under Moses and his law. These are perfect numbers, but one apostle fell and one of the 70 was chosen to take his place in Acts 1. They fell short and Jesus Christ cannot establish his kingdom without these numbers being correct after the model.

Mt 19:27 Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
29 And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name’s sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life.

Ro 9:31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
Ro 9:32 Wherefore? Because [they sought it] not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;

No words can be left out or put in. Either will pervert the word of the Lord. His ways are not our ways. I think you are wrong.

 

[Logos1560]

No words can be left out or put in. Either will pervert the word of the Lord

A consistent application of your own assertion would condemn the KJV in some places and even in many places. You fail to apply your own assertion to the KJV, making your allegations against other English Bibles inconsistent and unjust. You demonstrate that you are using unjust divers measures/standards. You do not consistently practice what you preach. You contradict yourself by use of double standards for the KJV. You incorrectly try to assume the KJV to be the standard for other English Bibles when it is not.

According to a consistent application of your stated claims, many original language words of Scripture are in effect left out in the KJV since the KJV provides no English rendering for them. Examples have been given in this thread. You were given examples where the 1560 Geneva Bible faithfully had English words for original-language words of Scripture where the KJV omitted them. In addition, many words are added in the KJV for which there were no original-language words of Scripture in its underlying original-language texts. You choose to close your eyes or avoid actual facts that would expose the serious problems with your claims.

 

[JesusFan]

If I admitted something that cannot be true if indeed there is a numerical structure to the scriptures, then I would be just like you. I am not like you.

It is the words of God that are inspired. The apostles and prophets of the NT just gave those words voice. That inspiration came from "the word of the Lord," whom I have already proven is a person and deserves our worship.

Lu 22:61 And the Lord turned, and looked upon Peter. And Peter remembered the word of the Lord, how he had said unto him, Before the cock crow, thou shalt deny me thrice.
Ac 8:25 And they, when they had testified and preached the word of the Lord, returned to Jerusalem, and preached the gospel in many villages of the Samaritans.
Ac 11:16 Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.
Ac 13:48 And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad, and glorified the word of the Lord: and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
Ac 13:49 And the word of the Lord was published throughout all the region.
Ac 15:35 Paul also and Barnabas continued in Antioch, teaching and preaching the word of the Lord, with many others also.
Ac 15:36 And some days after Paul said unto Barnabas, Let us go again and visit our brethren in every city where we have preached the word of the Lord, [and see] how they do.
Ac 16:32 And they spake unto him the word of the Lord, and to all that were in his house.
Ac 19:10 And this continued by the space of two years; so that all they which dwelt in Asia heard the word of the Lord Jesus, both Jews and Greeks.
1Th 1:8 For from you sounded out the word of the Lord not only in Macedonia and Achaia, but also in every place your faith to GodThis is-ward is spread abroad; so that we need not to speak any thing.
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive [and] remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
2Th 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may have [free] course, and be glorified, even as [it is] with you:
1Pe 1:25 But the word of the Lord endureth for ever. And this is the word which by the gospel is preached unto you.

You and others on this forum have chided us bible believers for worshipping the bible. Here in 2 Thess 3:1 is the church glorifying the word of the Lord.

There are numerical considerations in this particular revelation of Jesus Christ. The word of the Lord is mentioned 13 times in the NT. All of these mentions in the NT are after the Jewish rejection of Jesus Christ as Messiah and King. Paul is the thirteenth apostle, he writes 13 letters to gentiles, and he mentions the word gentiles 42 times in his letters and the number 42 is in the KJV 13 times. Thirteen is the number God associates consistently to sinners and transgressors. I can prove that to you because over a lifetime I have proven it to myself.

The number 11 is associated with Israel - Falling short of the perfect government of God
The number 12 Is the number for God's perfect government
The number 13 is associated with those who over step the government of God - transgressors (the word has 13 letters)

You guys probably haven't noticed that Jesus Christ came preaching the kingdom of God is at hand and he chose 12 apostles, and 70 elders after the model he established in the wilderness under Moses and his law. These are perfect numbers, but one apostle fell and one of the 70 was chosen to take his place in Acts 1. They fell short and Jesus Christ cannot establish his kingdom without these numbers being correct after the model.

Mt 19:27 Then answered Peter and said unto him, Behold, we have forsaken all, and followed thee; what shall we have therefore?
28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
29 And every one that hath forsaken houses, or brethren, or sisters, or father, or mother, or wife, or children, or lands, for my name’s sake, shall receive an hundredfold, and shall inherit everlasting life.

Ro 9:31 But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness, hath not attained to the law of righteousness.
Ro 9:32 Wherefore? Because [they sought it] not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;

No words can be left out or put in. Either will pervert the word of the Lord. His ways are not our ways. I think you are wrong.

just based upon that last statement of yours, one cannot hold to KJVO!

 

[JD731]

A consistent application of your own assertion would condemn the KJV in some places and even in many places. You fail to apply your own assertion to the KJV, making your allegations against other English Bibles inconsistent and unjust. You demonstrate that you are using unjust divers measures/standards. You do not consistently practice what you preach. You contradict yourself by use of double standards for the KJV. You incorrectly try to assume the KJV to be the standard for other English Bibles when it is not.

According to a consistent application of your stated claims, many original language words of Scripture are in effect left out in the KJV since the KJV provides no English rendering for them. Examples have been given in this thread. You were given examples where the 1560 Geneva Bible faithfully had English words for original-language words of Scripture where the KJV omitted them. In addition, many words are added in the KJV for which there were no original-language words of Scripture in its underlying original-language texts. You choose to close your eyes or avoid actual facts that would expose the serious problems with your claims.

The Geneva bible does not cross reference the KJV. They are different. You do not quote the Geneva the few times you quote any bible. You quote the KJV. Even you recognize and understand the superiority of the KJV by your actions. This proves you are the one who is inconsistent.

 

[Logos1560]

The Geneva bible does not cross reference the KJV. They are different.

You again try to divert instead of dealing with the truth. To try to dismiss or avoid facts and truths without discussion or any answer may reveal the weakness and problems with your inconsistent human KJV-only reasoning. Much of the KJV comes from the 1560 Geneva Bible so that they are not near as different as you try to suggest and so they would cross reference in many places. To attack the pre-1611 word of God in English is to attack part and much of the underlying English foundation of the KJV itself. The KJV is not the proper standard for trying the 1560 Geneva Bible as you incorrectly try to assume by use of fallacies. The proper standard for trying the Geneva Bible and the KJV and all Bible translations was given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles long before 1611.

I recognize and understand that the 1560 Geneva Bible is better and more accurate than the 1611 KJV in at least some places, and I recognize and understand that the 1560 Geneva Bible is an important source used in the making of the KJV since the KJV is a revision of it and other pre-1611 English Bibles. Just as the makers of the KJV did, I recognize and understand that the 1560 Geneva Bible is the word of God translated into English in the same sense and way that the 1611 KJV is the word of God translated into English. Just as the KJV translators acknowledged, I recognize and understand that the preserved Scriptures in the original languages are the proper standard and greater authority for the making and trying of all Bible translations.

You fail to demonstrate that I am being inconsistent in my scripturally-based view of Bible translations. It is your claims that have been demonstrated or proven to be inconsistent and even not true in some cases.