Ok......I have tried for a decade to get a legitimate answer to a question but all I get are responces that based off the assumption the issue in question is unquestionable.
Penal Substitution Theory is based on a specific presupposition. This presupposition is based on a judicial philosophy held by some in the 16th century.
If the presupposition is false then the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement is false.
In the past all I get are interpretations of Scripture assuming the presupposition is true. That is not what I am asking.
I am asking a very simple question.
In order to be able to forgive sins why does divine justice require that God first punish the sins to be forgiven even if this is not punishing the transgressor?
Penal Substitution Theory is based on a specific presupposition. This presupposition is based on a judicial philosophy held by some in the 16th century.
If the presupposition is false then the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement is false.
In the past all I get are interpretations of Scripture assuming the presupposition is true. That is not what I am asking.
I am asking a very simple question.
In order to be able to forgive sins why does divine justice require that God first punish the sins to be forgiven even if this is not punishing the transgressor?