The Archangel
Well-Known Member
In what manner was Christ "from" (para) the Father? If we let scripture explain scripture, then John 7:29 is on point:
“I do know Him, because I am from Him, and He sent Me.”
So the idea of para in this usage is to be provided by the Father for His purpose.
First off, the grammar and word usage of John 7:29 does not directly inform the grammar and word usage of John 1:14.
Here's John 7:29 in Greek: ἐγὼ οἶδα αὐτόν, ὅτι παρʼ αὐτοῦ εἰμι κἀκεῖνός με ἀπέστειλεν (emphasis mine)
The παρα is in bold, and it is παρα + genitive. Here it means "from." There is no "sent" here. "Sent" does appear, however, using a separate word: ἀπέστειλεν. Jesus is saying He comes "from Him (God)" and "He (God) sent Him." But, He is saying both things separately.
I have no problem that Christ came from God and was sent from God. The problem I have is that παρα doesn't mean "sent from," especially in John 1:14. In fact, John 7:29 argues against your point in John 1:14. If παρα meant "sent from," certainly John would have used only παρα to convey the idea that Jesus was sent from God in John 7:29. But, of course, he doesn't. He includes the verb "sent."
The Archangel
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