Did the sin of Adam cause women, even if you want to begin with Eve, too, in sin, to conceive?
How about your speculative thoughts to the following speculative scenario. Let's say Eve ate yet Adam did not would she have in iniquity have brought forth, would she have in sin have conceived?
What about, the birth, of Jesus Christ. Does, the birth = conceived and brought forth?
Matt 1:24,25 And Joseph, having risen from the sleep, did as the messenger (angel) of the Lord directed him, and received his wife and did not know her till she brought forth her son -- the first-born, and he called his name Jesus.
If Joseph had not done as the angel said and would have known her would her son - the first-born have been Holy?
Would he have been brought forth in iniquity even though conceived in a virgin as Holy?
Matt 1:20 ταῦτα δὲ αὐτοῦ ἐνθυμηθέντος ἰδού, ἄγγελος κυρίου κατ᾽ ὄναρ ἐφάνη αὐτῷ λέγων, Ἰωσὴφ υἱὸς Δαβίδ, μὴ φοβηθῇς παραλαβεῖν Μαριὰμ τὴν γυναῖκά σου· τὸ γὰρ ἐν αὐτῇ γεννηθὲν ἐκ πνεύματός ἐστιν ἁγίου
The virgin Mary, in her conceived out of Spirit is Holy --
Is that the reason for the construction of PS 51:5 brought forth before conceived?