Featured Bought versus Redeemed

An ironic Bible quote.

You claim a universal purchase by Jesus for all mankind. All humanity, by your assertion, is no longer separated from God.
But, then you say our sins "can be washed away."
Which is it? Is all humanity no longer separated, yet some have not been washed by that blood?

Are all humans therefore washed by the blood?

So, our faith causes God to credit us as righteous. Only then, even though we have had all our sins bought (ransomed, paid for in full) will God actually reconcile us.
This seems to be your message.

So, the first transaction is Jesus paid it all for all humanity. No one's sin is unpaid for, no matter who the person is, from Adam to the present. All sin is fully paid for.

The second transaction is when men choose to have faith in God and by displaying that faith, God chooses to reconcile them (even though all their sin is already paid for) because he declares their faith righteous, despite the fact that all humanity already had no sin in the eyes of God due to Jesus ransoming all humanities sin.

Again, the use of that verse at the beginning is ironic.

 

Relative to the word of God.

Question

Does redeemed imply something previous owned yet sold, whereas bought implies to purchase something you never owned?

 

2 Peter 2:1. ‘But there were also false prophets among the people, even as there will be false teachers among you, who will secretly bring in destructive heresies, even denying the Lord who bought them, and bring on themselves swift judgement.’

This text is certainly a difficult text for those who support the Doctrines of Grace. At first glance, it seems to be saying that people bought by the Lord Jesus Christ may depart from the faith and deny His name, striking at the very heart of the doctrines of Particular Redemption and the Perseverance of the Saints. The commentaries (at least the ones I have read) do not give a great deal of help. They suggest that these teachers merely ‘claim’ to have been bought by Christ and point to verse 22: ‘A dog returns to its vomit….etc’ which indicates that these people were not regenerate. But this does not satisfy the supporters of ‘General Redemption’ who see this verse as a proof text that Christ died for all men, but that only those who believe are saved.

So how shall we answer this? The first part of the answer is to look at the word despotes, translated as ‘Lord’ in the NKJV and as ‘Master’ in other versions. Despotes is mostly used to describe human masters. On the few occasions where it is used of God, it usually speaks of the Father, not the Son. The regular word for ‘Lord,’ when used of the Deity, is Kurios, which has divine overtones, being the word used by the writers of the Greek ‘Septuagint’ translation to render the Divine name, ‘Yahweh.’ The only other place in the N.T. where despotes might refer to Christ is Jude 4, but even here it seems to speak of God the Father. It is also important to observe that whatever this ‘buying’ entailed, there is no mention of the blood of the Lord Jesus as there is in 1 Peter 1:18-19 or Revelation 5:9-10.

So if despotes does indeed refer to God the Father, in what way did he ‘buy’ believers? We should first be aware that the verse is looking back to the O.T. period: ‘But there were false prophets among the people…..’ The Israelites were regarded as having been bought or redeemed out of Egypt by God. ‘Until the people pass over, O LORD, until the people pass over whom You have purchased’ (Exod. 15:16). ‘Do you thus deal with the LORD, O foolish and unwise people? Is He not the Father who bought you?’ (Deut. 32:6). God purchased the Israelites with His great power which He exhibited when He brought the plagues upon Egypt. But although all were ‘bought’ in that they all came out of Israel, very few of them ever reached the Promised Land (cf. 1 Cor. 10:1-5). These false teachers have likewise come into the church, but have not been redeemed by Christ.

It is here that we find the great difference between the Old and New Covenants. The Old Covenant was made with all the Israelites and was conditional; only a small number of those were saved (Exod. 33:19; Isaiah 1:9). The New Covenant by contrast, was made with believers of every language and nation. These are Christ’s sheep and are bought with the blood of the Good Shepherd. They will come to Him and they shall never perish (John 10:27-28). The Old Covenant was conditional; the New is unconditional (compare Exodus 19;5-6 with 1 Peter 2:9-10). If Christ shed His blood for the whole human race, then John 10:7-30 makes no sense.

This contrast is made especially clear in the famous ‘New Covenant’ prophecy of Jeremiah 31:31, repeated by the writer to the Hebrews:

‘Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah- not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they did not continue in My covenant, and I disregarded them, says the Lord. For this is the covenant that I shall make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put their laws in their mind and write them on their hearts; and I shall be their God and they shall be My people. None of them shall teach his neighbour, and none his brother, saying, “Know the Lord,” for all shall know Me, from the least of them to the greatest of them. For I shall be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their lawless deeds I will remember no more’ (Heb. 8:8-12).

So we can clearly see that the false teachers of 2 Peter 2:1 were not Christians, since their ‘swift destruction’ proves that they were not in the New Covenant. Their allegiance to Christ was shown to be fleeting and insincere; they were never His sheep, and one day they would hear the dread words of the One they had professed to know but actually scorned, saying, “I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practise lawlessness" (Matt. 7:23). The reference to 'buying' is an Old Testament allusion and refers to those who are outwardly Christian but not inwardly.

 

Thanks, thoughts on why a different word is used in 1 Peter 1:18 ---- ἐλυτρώθητε G3084

Don't know what it means but appears G59 is in the context of gathering and G3084 in the context of loosing.

 

wherefore, I give you to understand that no one, in the Spirit of God speaking, saith Jesus is anathema, and no one is able to say Jesus is Lord, except in the Holy Spirit. 1 Cor 12:3

And there did come also false prophets among the people, as also among you there shall be false teachers, who shall bring in besides destructive sects, and the Master who bought them denying, bringing to themselves quick destruction, 2 Peter 2:1

And not only so, but also we ourselves, having the first-fruit of the Spirit, we also ourselves in ourselves do groan, adoption expecting -- the redemption of our body; Rom 8:23
having counselled, He did beget us with a word of truth, for our being a certain first-fruit of His creatures. James 1:18

and every tongue may confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. Phil 2:11



Just trying to make sense of it all .

 

Van I highlighted your very words. I quoted you. So, there very much was quotation of what you said...exactly.
You are remarkable in that you deny saying what you actually said.

I note that you only acknowledge Jesus atonement as "a means" to redemption, which indicates that Jesus did not ransom all men entirely, but only potentially. In other words, Jesus effort is rendered null and void by the human who must activate the redemption by their own actions.
No matter how you try to slice this, Van, the fullness of Jesus payment cannot be completed until you do the work on your end.

 

Their very persons...body, soul and spirit.
1 Corinthians 6:12-20.

"Ye are bought with a price..."

Van, I don't see where the Bible ever uses this language to describe who the Lord Jesus sacrificed Himself for...
That all of mankind "can" obtain the righteousness of God;
As if it is some sort of potential waiting for people to act, which then "releases" that righteousness to them.

Rather, I clearly see that all those for whom Christ died for have already obtained the righteousness of God through Jesus Christ, when He died for them and rose again:

" But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; 22 even the righteousness of God [which is] by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe:"

" But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
9 Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
10 For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.
11 And not only [so], but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement."

" And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
14 blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

To put it plainly, all of God's people, the "whosoever believeth", have already obtained the righteousness of God through their Saviour, Jesus Christ.
It happened at the cross, when payment was made for their sins.

That is when the blotting out of the handwriting of ordinances that was against them ( the Law ) was performed.

 

I see that the difference between being bought with the blood of Christ and being washed by it, is this:

Being bought means being purchased out of the hand of the devil, from the curse of the Law, and from the wrath of God that will be carried out upon all those for whom the Lord Jesus did not give Himself...
Eternal torment in the Lake of Fire.

Being washed is a figurative washing in the eyes of God whereby God the Father recognized the worth of His own Son's blood, as an atoning sacrifice, that resulted in Him casting those sins behind His back for all eternity. It was not and is not a literal "washing" like in water, but a spiritual "washing" of sins away from the presence of a holy God who will not and cannot condone even the most minute disobedience to His will and commands. Our baptism in water, as God's children, is a symbol of our already being "washed" by His Son's blood...

and this washing happened, again, at the cross when His blood was shed.

 

How have I misrepresented what you very clearly stated? If all humanity is under the New Covenant in Jesus blood, how can they be separated from God?

You say: "Christ’s sacrifice on the cross bought us out of our prior condition and put us, all mankind, under the New Covenant in His blood.."

You declare that Jesus bought all humanity and put all humanity under the New Covenant, which means he fulfilled the New Covenant for all humans and gave them the inheritance of the Will. (Hebrews 9)

I quoted you exactly as you have stated and what you state means that all humans have been bought and paid for.

I quoted you, exactly, and you say:
"However, only when God credits our faith in Christ as righteousness and places us spiritually in Christ, do we receive the reconciliation provided by Christ’s sacrifice on the cross."

Look in the mirror.