POINT #1 - Well I am sure you will agree that none of the bibles that we have are the inspired scriptures or at least I would think you would agree since only the autographs were inspired. Every bible that we have is a translation. And since the KJV was done in 1611, and then redone in 1629 & 1638 & 1760 & 1769 which one do you consider to be the inspired one or do you just consider it to be a translation done by men just as all those other bibles are translations done by men.
As I said before, unless you are using a Konie Greek text for your NT then you are using a translation. So you JD have a real problem as you said you use the KJV so why are you doing that as it is not inspired so you are violating your own standard.
POINT #2 - Mar 16:15 And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.
Mar 16:16 Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
Do you think Christ was saying that we have to teach everyone English before we can preach the gospel to them or perhaps French or German and why not Greek but then it would have to be Konie Greek as that is what they spoke back then. And what language do you think the autographs were written in JD? As I said before, you do not even know what you are asking.
POINT #1
Focus please, focus! If you insist on discussing the KJV, fine. Let’s start a thread on the topic, but this thread is not about that. This thread is about what God instructs about translating his own testimony in words of other languages. You have advanced the notion that since any and all translations are uninspired and God is not involved in them then it is the prerogative of any man, group, or organization to present a translation or paraphrase at any time they choose and that God either sanctions it or is disinterested in the practice.
I just would like to know where he addresses this subject and if you want to quote the original autographs to answer the question it is fine with me. The only word I have on the scriptures is that all scripture is inspired of God and I actually believe the words of a translation can be inspired of God, but only one per language. What would be the point of more especially when the teacher of those inspired words, the Spirit of God is a permanent and ever present resident in the bodies of the redeemed.
Point #2
Your point #2 taken from Mk 16:15-16 to prove your thesis will not work logically. The disciples were given a commission and the history of their actions written in the Acts of the apostles allows us to see how they understood the command. Follow this logic.
Mark 16:15-16
15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Here is Peter preaching 50 days later answering the question of the Jews. See what is said.
Acts 2:37-38
37 Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
receiving the Holy Ghost is the definition of being saved and Peter’s command to the Jews was obedience to the command of Jesus in Mark 16.
Acts 10:39-48
39 And we are witnesses of all things which he did both in the land of the Jews, and in Jerusalem; whom they slew and hanged on a tree:
40 Him God raised up the third day, and shewed him openly;
41 Not to all the people, but unto witnesses chosen before of God, even to us, who did eat and drink with him after he rose from the dead.
42 And he commanded us to preach unto the people, and to testify that it is he which was ordained of God to be the Judge of quick and dead.
43 To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.
44 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word.
45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
47 Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we?
48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.
The take away on these verses and reconciling the difference in Peters practice of baptism lies in the meaning of the term “creature.” Jesus did not send them out to preach and baptize the world of the creature, but the creature of the world. The Jews are the creatures.
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