I agree the idea of forgiveness accomplished being Christ paying the penalty for our sins instead of us is not actually in the Bible but rather an idea men derived from it. They were wrong.Martin Marprelate was asked, not me; and he can certainly answer for himself quite adequately, but my thought is that this is:
"Father, I have already paid the penalty for the sins of this person in full. Your justice is fully satisfied", is:
based on:
and as;
...
I don't see "Father, I have already paid the penalty for the sins of this person in full. Your justice is fully satisfied", as 'punishment inflicted on someone as vengeance', like retribution.
...
So, there is no Wrath that was poured out on Jesus?
Jesus being a propitiation reversed Wrath from Him? or God's children?
What happened in the case of Jesus' Passion, where you say,
"something has happened
so that there is no longer a purpose for the wrath."
"Wrath aversion?
What "punishment currently implemented is reversed/alleviated"?, in Jesus' situation?
What "future punishment that is threatened is averted"?
"What actually 'happened' "so that there is no longer a purpose for the wrath."
That said, I DO believe that Christ died for our sins, became a curse for us, not knowing sin was made sin for us, and in Him we escape the wrath to come.