As far as we know from the Word of God

[percho]

When God called Abram was God calling anyone else in the whole world?

Should Abram have left Lot in Ur?

From 2 Peter 2:7 and righteous Lot,

Would Lot have been called righteous even if left in Ur?

In what manner could Lot be called righteous? Is the obedience of one [Rom 5:19] [Jesus of Nazareth, I assume] relative to Lot being called righteous in 2 Peter 2:7?

 

[KenH]

In what manner could Lot be called righteous?

All of God's elect have the perfect righteousness of Christ imputed to them.

Should Abram have left Lot in Ur?

Obviously, it was not God's purpose for Abram to leave Lot in Ur.

 

[percho]

All of God's elect have the perfect righteousness of Christ imputed to them.



Obviously, it was not God's purpose for Abram to leave Lot in Ur.

Well I made a mistake and should have gone back and read again. Actually Terah took the whole bunch to Haran and there God spoke to Abram.

Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee: 12:1

Should Abram have left Lot in Haran, relative to, away from thy kindred? Course we know Abraham sent his servant Lazarus [intentional] back to get a bride for his son.

I know, same answer.

BTW agree concerning righteousness.