Featured The Two "Natures" of Christ Jesus

In a recent thread, discussion was initiated on the "Hypostatic Union." The thread drifted into a philosophical discussion, and away from specifics concerning Christ's natures.

I posted the following:
Once again we address this fundamental doctrine. Jesus is the union of two substances, Logos, God the Son, and human, the son of Mary, a descendant of Abraham and David. He is not a mixture. He has no "human spirit" only the "uniquely divine" Spirit of God the Son. And of course God the Son is not part of or a mixture with human biology.

One cause of confusion is the use of the term "nature" which is also part of the term "sin nature." Humanity, in its fallen current state has a sin nature, a corruption of our human spirits due to the consequences of Adam's sin imposed by God. Many mistaken believers think the sin nature is passed on to the next generation biologically, This is just another unstudied and unbiblical belief.

I did not see any immediate followup replies, so I have started this thread to discuss His natures.

One historical objection to Jesus not having both a "created human body and human spirit/soul," was that Jesus would not have a "human mind" without a human "spirit/soul" and thus would not have been tempted as we are, and therefore could not serve as our sin offering. However, this view: "The teaching that says Jesus did not have a human spirit/soul, but only had a divine spirit is called Apollinarianism..." claimed Jesus would not have a human mind. But we know from scripture that the physical body communicates with our mind, thus we have fleshly desires or lusts. Even in a non-fallen state humans could desire what looked good to eat. Our body tells us we are sleepy or hungry, or in need of other bodily functions. Our body tells us not to suffer, to avoid suffering. Christ suffered, thus His body communicated with His mind, the "mind of Christ."

Thus the argument that Jesus lacking a human spirit/soul, results in the mind of Christ not being tempted or suffering as humans do fails. Turning the tables, since humans are created in the likeness of God, God's divine mind can share likeness with humans, except Christ of course did not share the fallen nature of our human "spirit/soul."

Two other supporting views are found in scripture for the absence of a "fallen spirit/soul" in Christ. When He died He commended His Spirit (singular) to God. And He was without blemish, such as a "fallen spirit/soul."

Here is a verse sometimes used to claim Jesus had to have a human spirit as well as His divine Spirit.

Hebrews 2:17 (Interpretive translation)
Therefore, in all things He was obligated to be like His brothers so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to provide the means of reconciliation for the sins of the people. ​

Since the mind of Christ with its fleshly inputs is "like" our mind with its fleshly inputs, He is like all humanity.

The last argument for the need of Christ to have a "human spirit/soul" is the difference between the mind of God and the mind of humans, i.e. infinite verses finite. But this is addressed by Logos setting aside parts of His attributes, emptying Himself by becoming like human servants. Philippians 2:7

 

1) We agree that women do not pass on the "fallen" sin nature. (Neither do men.)

2) A possible interpretation of the claim the "fallen" sin nature is "paternal" is that it is passed on by the action of God the Father, when He forms our human spirit/soul within us at conception, thus conceived in iniquity.

3) As a result of Adam's "Original Sin" everyone but Jesus is conceived in a fallen corrupt spiritually dead condition, thus "made sinners."

 

This verse does not even address how the fallen nature is passed on. Note Genesis 3:7, their eyes (speaking of both Adam and Eve) were both opened only after Adam sinned, thus the corruption was passed to Eve spiritually.

A possible interpretation of the claim the "fallen" sin nature is "paternal" is that it is passed on by the action of God the Father, when He forms our human spirit/soul within us at conception, thus conceived in iniquity.

As a result of Adam's "Original Sin" everyone but Jesus is conceived in a fallen corrupt spiritually dead condition, thus "made sinners."(Romans 5:19)

 

Bogus claim with no actual supporting scripture. Genesis 3:12 refers to Eve after her "eyes were opened spiritually" due to Adam's sin and does not does not say her mistake was the cause of spiritual corruption.

 

Why ignore my specific description of the "sin nature" provided in multiple posts?

 

I have, multiple times!!!!!!!

SIN NATURE = The human capacity and ability to make choices not in the will of God. Due to the "Fall" (everyone except Jesus is "made sinners") we are predisposed to choose other than the will of God initially in our lives. After we are born anew, our fallen nature is removed, our spirit/soul is no longer corrupt, but we still have the capacity to choose other than the will of God just as Adam in his unfallen state had that capacity.

 

Bogus claim with no actual supporting scripture. Genesis 3:12 refers to Eve after her "eyes were opened spiritually" due to Adam's sin and does not does not say her mistake was the cause of spiritual corruption.

 

Sometimes people ask, "Why did God arrange for the "Fall." I think Gideon provides the explication. Recall how God reduced the size of Gideon's army to increase the "glory" of the victory? In the same way, when fallen individuals choose to trust in God, that may increase the "glory" they bring to God. In Revelation 16:9 we see when people repent they bring glory to God. See also Judges 7:2

 

LOL, you have no basis for saying Eve "inherited" knowledge of good and evil, which constituted her "fall" before her eyes were opened with the knowledge of good and evil. Genesis 3:7

By the disobedience of Adam sin entered humanity, not by the falsely claimed sin of Eve.
If Eve sinned then sin entered humanity, at least upon one human (Eve) before Adam sinned. Not how scripture reads...