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The Law As An Intentional and Required Precursor To Christ

Paleouss

Member
Greetings to all my brothers. My time currently is devoted to understanding how the Moral Law is an intentional step in the stratagem of God to bring redemption through Christ. This in-depth look is an attempt to understand a logical step by step order of the stratagem of God and its 'why's' and wisdom.

I am particularly interested in how, within the stratagem of God, the Moral Law 'must' be given first before the coming of Christ. By using the word 'must' I mean how logically it fits into the overall scheme of what God wanted to do. The wisdom in His order.

The Bible tells of that one purpose, of multiple purposes, of the Incarnation, Death and Resurrection (IDR) was so that Chrst “was manifested to take away our sins” (1John 3:5 NKJV)... So one of the purposes of the IDR was to take away our sins, i.e., ours sins needed to be taken away.

1. Galatians 4:4 says, "But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law, 5 to redeem those who were under the law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." The words I want to focus on are "born under the law" so as to "redeem those who were under the law". This verse seems to imply that to redeem those under the law, God needed, according to His plan, to have Christ born under the law. Christ being born outside the law would then seem to not bring the result that God wanted.

Related question to the above... why doesn't God send Christ before the Moral Law? In the wisdom of the stratagem of God, was the law needed before the IDR?

2. Romans 7:6 (NKJV) says, "But now we have been delivered from the law". So Christ, who (a) needed to be born under the law, also seen in Gal 4:4, "delivered" us "from the law". Because, according to Galatians 2:19, we all needed to die to the law that we "might live to God".

All this so far seems to imply that God sent the Moral Law as a precursor to Christ to coral sin under the law and count each individual sin to each person, because it wasn't being counted as transgression between Adam and Moses. So that Christ could then deliver us from the Law. So the law needed to come first.

3. Galalians 3:22 says, "But the Scripture has confined all under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe." This also seems to imply that the Moral Law needed to come first, in God's stratagem, to confine "all under sin" (Gal 3:22) so that the "promise by faith" might be given. Another seeming implication that the Moral Law must be first so that God's stratagem might be fulfilled in the IDR.

4. The Moral Law was therefore given so “all the world may become guilty before God” (Rom 3:10, Gal3:11). So that individual sin might be counted as transgression. The law confines and defines sin through the “knowledge of sin” (Rom 3:20, Rom 7:7); it spotlights sin, so in the light the “offense might abound”(Rom 5:20); therefore being a “tutor” (Gal 3:24), a guide toward the object of this world’s purposeful end, that is the Son of God.

5. After the culmination of times, Christ then “gave himself for [us]” (Gal 2:20) by giving “His life a ransom for many” (Mark 10:45) as a “propitiation by His blood, through faith” (Rom 3:24). These verse appear to create a connection between the IDR and the law through words like "ransom" and "propitiation". Thereby implying a need, a necessity if you will, for the steps to be (1) the Moral Law (2) the IDR.

6. This was accomplished by “committing no sin” (1Pet 2:22) while He lived "under the law" (Gal 4:4) and offering “Himself without spot to God” (Heb 9:14). These verses seem to imply a need for Christ's life, from the exact point of birth to the exact point of death, to be without sin under the law. (under the law being very important, thus the law coming before the IDR)

7. …so that He then could sacrifice himself “to be sin for us” (2Cor 5:21) by bearing “our sins in His own body on the tree” (1Pet 2:24, Gal 6:2).

8. He was therefore “wounded for our transgressions” (Isa 53:5) and “bruised for our iniquities” (Isa 53:5) for taking on “the chastisement for our peace” (Isa 53:5). These verse also seem to imply a relation to the IDR and the law. Thus, the law must come first before the IDR.



Peace to you, brothers
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
@Paleouss,
Thank you for that helpful post. :)
There is one point that I think you may have omitted. The law was added because of transgressions (Gal. 3:19). It was put in place to restrain sin. That is a reason for any kind of law. As you enter my village in England, there is a 30 mph sign, but most people coming down the hill are doing about 45 mph without a care in the world and completely ignore the sign. But a little further on there is a LED sign that flashes "30" at them, suddenly confronting them with the law. Most people slow down at that point, but by the time they are leaving the village, their speed has often sneaked back up to 40 or 45 mph showing that while they know the law, it has not been written on their hearts.
So the law makes nothing perfect (Heb. 7:19), but it restrains sin to some degree. If there were no law governing speeding, everyone would be driving at 90 mph if he felt like it!
 

Charlie24

Active Member
Greetings to all my brothers. My time currently is devoted to understanding how the Moral Law is an intentional step in the stratagem of God to bring redemption through Christ. This in-depth look is an attempt to understand a logical step by step order of the stratagem of God and its 'why's' and wisdom.

I am particularly interested in how, within the stratagem of God, the Moral Law 'must' be given first before the coming of Christ. By using the word 'must' I mean how logically it fits into the overall scheme of what God wanted to do. The wisdom in His order.

The Bible tells of that one purpose, of multiple purposes, of the Incarnation, Death and Resurrection (IDR) was so that Chrst “was manifested to take away our sins” (1John 3:5 NKJV)... So one of the purposes of the IDR was to take away our sins, i.e., ours sins needed to be taken away.

1. Galatians 4:4 says, "But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law, 5 to redeem those who were under the law, that we might receive the adoption as sons." The words I want to focus on are "born under the law" so as to "redeem those who were under the law". This verse seems to imply that to redeem those under the law, God needed, according to His plan, to have Christ born under the law. Christ being born outside the law would then seem to not bring the result that God wanted.

Related question to the above... why doesn't God send Christ before the Moral Law? In the wisdom of the stratagem of God, was the law needed before the IDR?

2. Romans 7:6 (NKJV) says, "But now we have been delivered from the law". So Christ, who (a) needed to be born under the law, also seen in Gal 4:4, "delivered" us "from the law". Because, according to Galatians 2:19, we all needed to die to the law that we "might live to God".

All this so far seems to imply that God sent the Moral Law as a precursor to Christ to coral sin under the law and count each individual sin to each person, because it wasn't being counted as transgression between Adam and Moses. So that Christ could then deliver us from the Law. So the law needed to come first.

3. Galalians 3:22 says, "But the Scripture has confined all under sin, that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe." This also seems to imply that the Moral Law needed to come first, in God's stratagem, to confine "all under sin" (Gal 3:22) so that the "promise by faith" might be given. Another seeming implication that the Moral Law must be first so that God's stratagem might be fulfilled in the IDR.

4. The Moral Law was therefore given so “all the world may become guilty before God” (Rom 3:10, Gal3:11). So that individual sin might be counted as transgression. The law confines and defines sin through the “knowledge of sin” (Rom 3:20, Rom 7:7); it spotlights sin, so in the light the “offense might abound”(Rom 5:20); therefore being a “tutor” (Gal 3:24), a guide toward the object of this world’s purposeful end, that is the Son of God.

5. After the culmination of times, Christ then “gave himself for [us]” (Gal 2:20) by giving “His life a ransom for many” (Mark 10:45) as a “propitiation by His blood, through faith” (Rom 3:24). These verse appear to create a connection between the IDR and the law through words like "ransom" and "propitiation". Thereby implying a need, a necessity if you will, for the steps to be (1) the Moral Law (2) the IDR.

6. This was accomplished by “committing no sin” (1Pet 2:22) while He lived "under the law" (Gal 4:4) and offering “Himself without spot to God” (Heb 9:14). These verses seem to imply a need for Christ's life, from the exact point of birth to the exact point of death, to be without sin under the law. (under the law being very important, thus the law coming before the IDR)

7. …so that He then could sacrifice himself “to be sin for us” (2Cor 5:21) by bearing “our sins in His own body on the tree” (1Pet 2:24, Gal 6:2).

8. He was therefore “wounded for our transgressions” (Isa 53:5) and “bruised for our iniquities” (Isa 53:5) for taking on “the chastisement for our peace” (Isa 53:5). These verse also seem to imply a relation to the IDR and the law. Thus, the law must come first before the IDR.



Peace to you, brothers

This is a very well organized in depth look at the Law in relation to Christ.

There are many reasons the Law was sent before Christ, the main reason was for Israel to identify sin preparing them for the coming Messiah.

They were to be a holy people set apart before God and evangelize the Gentile world, introducing Christ as the Savior of the world.

Their preparation for this was the Law of Moses. But they began to worship the keeping of the Law, and perverted it's meaning and purpose and didn't even recognize their Savior when He came. He didn't meet their expectations of the Law God had given them.

The Law of Moses was never given to the Gentiles, only the Hebrews/Jews. The Moral Law (the 10 commandments) was God's standard of righteousness. If man could have kept those commandments he would have no need of a Savior. But fallen man can't keep those commandments.

So God sent His Son to do what we could not do for ourselves, He kept those commandments perfectly. The righteousness we receive at salvation is the righteousness Christ earned for us during His life on this earth. By faith in what Christ has done for us through His death, burial, and resurrection, we are given His righteousness.

So the Law has served its purpose and gave way to Grace through faith in Christ. Although God has always saved man by grace through faith in Christ. Now that Christ has fulfilled the official act of Grace, we can actually pinpoint that act of grace from God. Whereas for the OT saints, they could not see this act of grace in the person of Christ, but only through the innocent animal shedding its blood that represented Christ.

All the points you've made are well taken, excellent work!
 
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