Then you have not understood the arguments against Penal Substitution Theory.I thought that, in the light of the sudden ending of the previous thread, it might be interesting to see what brought the ending about. @Reynolds is right; the arguments against the Doctrine of Penal Substitution are mostly word games.
Sure.....BUT then get back to the topic.Well I quoted three texts and referenced three more. Why don't you try dealing with those, bearing in mind that Scripture does not contradict itself.
'There is now therefore no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus.'
I agree. There is no condembation on Christ. BUT Scrioture states that in Christ we escaoe the wratg to come. As you read your Bible you will see this is God's wrath.
The condemned are condemned by God. The wratg to come is God's judgment.
The Bible teaches that that there is the wages if sin which is death, for sin begats death, but that there is also divine judgment "on that day", "on the day of wrath, at Judgment.
The wicked will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord . This 8s the Second Death, and it is divine judgment - NOT the death sin produces.
It is appointed man once to die and then the judgment.
. He has 'passed from death to life.' 'And whoever lives and believes in Me shall never die.' Yep. This is life in Christ Jesus. This is not talking about the physical death sin "begats". "Yet we die, so shall we live", "It is appointed man once to die and then the judgment.'
The sinless One, Christ, is made sin for us (2 Cor. 5:21). You already said "sin" means actions (that Jesus was made a sinful action). I already said that sin is more than an action, so I believe this means Christ became sin for us. He shared in our infirmity, is the Son of Man.
God laid our iniquities on Him....He was pierced for our transgressions; He was crushed for our iniquities.'
Absolutely. I believe this means what it states.
God can be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.
I know this is how you read the passage (as a problem to be solved rather than a declaration). Perhaps this is why you changed a word.
I believe the actually passage correct.
Fact remains that these passages do not support Penal Substitution Theory. You go to Scripture ti support your theory and always come up empty because God's Word does not state what you want it to state.
The spelling is because Im using my phone. If you can't understand something just askYour spelling is so ghastly that I don't know what you mean. Of course there is no condemnation on Christ, but did you mean in Christ? If so, why is there no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus? And what does it mean?
Of course! But this is where you are all at sea! We are not the wicked any more; we have been washed from our sins in the blood of Jesus (Rev. 1:5). We are now the righteousness of God in Him. We no longer draw the wages of sin because Christ has drawn them on our behalf.
Romans 8:1 again. Christians have nothing to do with that judgment. Our sins have been taken away (John 1:29).
I have never said that the Lord Jesus was made a sinful action. I have said that all our sins were laid on Him, and that can only be by imptation.
Well this is progress because for years you have denied that Christ was made sin. But 2 Cor. 5:21 does not say that He shared in our infirmity; you have invented that bit.
What exactly do you believe it states?
Rom. 3:26 (NKJV). 'To demonstrate at this time His righteousness, THAT He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.' I am reading it correctly. It is the solution of a problem. God solved it by setting the Lord Jesus forth as a propitiation by His blood. SO THAT He might be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus
The fact remains that they do support the Doctrine of Penal Substitution as I have shown. Only a Penal Substitution denier could continue to argue. I tell you and everyone else who reads this thread that unless Jesus Christ has paid the penalty for your sins in full and satisfied the justice of God, you will have to pay that penalty yourselves. The good news is that He has paid it, and propitiated the righteous anger of God against His people.
I believe the passage is talking about the righteousnessofGodbeingreveaked aoart from the Law, through faith in Jesus to all who believe. The distinction under the Law between Jew and Gentile no longer exists, for all have sinned. We are justified as a gift by God's mercy (something we did not deserve) through the redemption which is in Jesus, whom God displayed publicly as an atonement (some prefer "propitiation", but I'd use a more encompassing word which includes propitiation) in His blood through faith.
This was to demonstrate God's righteousness because in God's restraint He let past sins ho unpunished for the demonstration of His righteousness in the present time (when the Promise had come) so that He woukd be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Christ.
I am not sure how one could read the passage differently. Had God not let sins previous to Christ's death and resurrection go unpunished then how could those people be justified?
Yes.Then continue. Do you also have an idea of how or if the atonement relates to the individual sins that we have committed?
If we agree that the wages of sin is death, sin begats death, death is "returning to dust", this death is a "power of darkness" then what is left would be the Judgment.
Men need to not only be forgiven but made without guilt. (We need to be forgiven and given a new heart). So as far as judgment goes these two things need to be accomplished for man to escape the wrath to come.
The wrath to come is God's wrath (not what sin produces but what God does).
This is called the Second Death, the "wicked will be punished with everlasting destruction and shut out from the presence of the Lord".
Do we agree?