• Welcome to Baptist Board, a friendly forum to discuss the Baptist Faith in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to all the features that our community has to offer.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

The Definition Of “Foreknowledge”

Baptizo

Active Member
1 Peter 1:1-2 - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Foreknowledge - To have awareness of something before it happens or exists.

Why do some change the definition to mean that something is determined to happen or exist?
 
Last edited:

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
They define foreknowledge as "knowing beforehand" but use "know" as Jesus did when He said "I never knew you" (a relationship rather than a cognitive awarness).
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
1 Peter 1:1-2 - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Foreknowledge - To have awareness of something before it happens or exists.

Why do Calvinists change the definition to mean that something is determined to happen or exist?
The bible meaning of the word "to Know" often means an intimate knowledge of the person, many times husband and wife;
Gen:4 4 And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.

Gen.4:17 And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived,

25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.

So when it appears in the NT. Mt.1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

So biblical foreknowledge is God having an intimate knowledge of the people, a special knowledge . romans 8:29..Whom He did Foreknow,
God knows who all men are because He knows everything. However Whom He did forknow is said to be those He set His love on.
All Christians should believe this as it is the biblical teaching. The Calvinists all believe it , but it looks like many do not see it.
 

Baptizo

Active Member
However Whom He did forknow is said to be those He set His love on.
All Christians should believe this as it is the biblical teaching. The Calvinists all believe it , but it looks like many do not see it.

I don’t disagree that the definition of “knowing” can mean to be in a relationship. At the same time, I don’t see how that also means that it has to be determined.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
The bible meaning of the word "to Know" often means an intimate knowledge of the person, many times husband and wife;
Gen:4 4 And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.

Gen.4:17 And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived,

25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.

So when it appears in the NT. Mt.1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

So biblical foreknowledge is God having an intimate knowledge of the people, a special knowledge . romans 8:29..Whom He did Foreknow,
God knows who all men are because He knows everything. However Whom He did forknow is said to be those He set His love on.
All Christians should believe this as it is the biblical teaching. The Calvinists all believe it , but it looks like many do not see it.
In those examples it is not "intimate knowledge", but an euphemism for sexual activity (your definition misuses the word "knowledge").

Matthew 7:21-23, where Jesus says "I never knew you" would be an example of what you are talking about.

That does not, of course, automatically extend to "foreknowledge" or discount the normal use of the word but it is a legitimate suggestion.
 

kyredneck

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I don’t see how that also means that it has to be determined.

I 'foreknow' what's coming up in my garden each year because I planted it:

Matthew Chapter 15

13​

But he answered and said, Every plant which my heavenly Father planted not, shall be rooted up.
 

Alan Dale Gross

Active Member
the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father,

They define foreknowledge as "knowing beforehand" but use "know" as Jesus did when He said "I never knew you" (a relationship rather than a cognitive awarness).
So biblical foreknowledge is God having an intimate knowledge of the people, a special knowledge . romans 8:29..Whom He did Foreknow,
"What is meant by “foreknowledge”? “To know beforehand,” is the ready reply of many.
"But we must not jump at conclusions, nor must we turn to Webster’s dictionary as the final court of appeal, for it is not a matter of the etymology of the term employed. What is needed is to find out how the word is used in Scripture. The Holy Spirit’s usage of an expression always defines its meaning and scope. It is failure to apply this simple rule which is responsible for so much confusion and error. So many people assume they already know the signification of a certain word used in Scripture, and then they are too dilatory to test their assumptions by means of a concordance. Let us amplify this point.

"Take the word “flesh.” Its meaning appears to be so obvious that many would regard it as a waste of time to look up its various connections in Scripture. It is hastily assumed that the word is synonymous with the physical body, and so no inquiry is made. But, in fact, “flesh” in Scripture frequently includes far more than what is corporeal; all that is embraced by the term can only be ascertained by a diligent comparison of every occurrence of it and by a study of each separate context. Take the word “world.” The average reader of the Bible imagines this word is the equivalent for the human race, and consequently, many passages where the term is found are wrongly interpreted. Take the word “immortality.” Surely it requires no study! Obviously it has reference to the indestructibility of the soul. Ah, my reader, it is foolish and wrong to assume anything where the Word of God is concerned. If the reader will take the trouble to carefully examine each passage where “mortal” and “immortal” are found, it will be seen these words are never applied to the soul, but always to the body.

"Now what has been said on “flesh,” the “world,” “immortality,” applies with equal force to the terms “know” and “foreknow.” Instead of imagining that these words signify no more than a simple cognition, the different passages in which they occur require to be carefully weighed. The word “foreknowledge” is not found in the Old Testament. But “know” occurs there frequently. When that term is used in connection with God, it often signifies to regard with favour, denoting not mere cognition but an affection for the object in view. I know thee by name” (Ex 33:17). “Ye have been rebellious against the Lord from the day that I knew you” (Deut 9:24). “Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee” (Jer 1:5). “They have made princes and I knew it not” (Hos 8:4). “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (Amos 3:2). In these passages “knew” signifies either loved or appointed.

"In like manner, the word “know” is frequently used in the New Testament, in the same sense as in the Old Testament. “Then will I profess unto them, I never knew you” (Matt 7:23). “I am the good shepherd and know My sheep and am known of Mine” (John 10:14). “If any man love God, the same is known of Him” (I Cor 8:3). “The Lord knoweth them that are His” (II Tim 2:19).

"Now the word “foreknowledge” as it is used in the N.T. is less ambiguous than in its simple form “to know.” If every passage in which it occurs is carefully studied, it will be discovered that it is a moot point whether it ever has reference to the mere perception of events which are yet to take place. The fact is that “foreknowledge” is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons. It is persons God is said to “foreknow,” not the actions of those persons. In proof of this we shall now quote each passage where this expression is found.

"The first occurrence is in Acts 2:23. There we read, “Him being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain.” If careful attention is paid to the wording of this verse it will be seen that the apostle was not there speaking of God’s foreknowledge of the act of the crucifixion, but of the Person crucified: “Him [Christ] being delivered by . . .

"The second occurrence is in Romans 8:29, 30. “For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the Firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called . . .” Weigh well the pronoun that is used here. It is not what He did foreknow, but whom He did. It is not the surrendering of their wills nor believing of their hearts, but the persons themselves, which is here in view.

“God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew” — Romans 11:2. Once more the plain reference is to persons, and to persons only.

"The last mention is in I Peter 1:2: “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.” Who are “elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father”? The previous verse tells us: the reference is to the “strangers scattered,” i.e., the Diaspora, the Dispersion, the believing Jews. Thus, here too the reference is to persons, and not to their foreseen acts.

"Now in view of these passages (and there are no more) what scriptural ground is there for anyone saying God “foreknew” the acts of certain ones, viz., their “repenting and believing,” and that because of those acts He elected them unto salvation? The answer is: None whatever. Scripture never speaks of repentance and faith as being foreseen or foreknown by God. Truly, He did know from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.” The word uniformly refers to God’s foreknowing persons; then let us “hold fast the form of sound words” (II Tim 1:13)."

From Arthur Pink The Foreknowledge of God
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
In those examples it is not "intimate knowledge", but an euphemism for sexual activity (your definition misuses the word "knowledge").
I agree for sure, but marital relations are a large part of intimate relations, the close bond and communion of a marriage is what they stress. I am not sure if it misuses the word knowledge at all in that it is repeated with Adam and Eve. Adam "knew" his wife again, and she conceived. To know was used as you say as a euphemism, but it was not used as we use the word knowledge about scir=ence. In other words, did he forget who Eve was? Did he come to know her, or figure out who she was once again? that kind of use of the word knowledge does not seem to be in play does it? Did Joseph forget who Mary was when she conceived the Lord Jesus? Again, it was used rather as you say as a euphemism.
Matthew 7:21-23, where Jesus says "I never knew you" would be an example of what you are talking about.
Agreed once again...Certainly our all Knowing God "knew" who the men were who are cast into second death, but He did not have that "intimate knowledge of them, obviously not as a sexual euphemism, but rather the idea of a Covenant bond here.
That does not, of course, automatically extend to "foreknowledge" or discount the normal use of the word but it is a legitimate suggestion.
Agreed.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
"What is meant by “foreknowledge”? “To know beforehand,” is the ready reply of many.
"But we must not jump at conclusions, nor must we turn to Webster’s dictionary as the final court of appeal, for it is not a matter of the etymology of the term employed. What is needed is to find out how the word is used in Scripture. The Holy Spirit’s usage of an expression always defines its meaning and scope. It is failure to apply this simple rule which is responsible for so much confusion and error. So many people assume they already know the signification of a certain word used in Scripture, and then they are too dilatory to test their assumptions by means of a concordance. Let us amplify this point.

"Take the word “flesh.” Its meaning appears to be so obvious that many would regard it as a waste of time to look up its various connections in Scripture. It is hastily assumed that the word is synonymous with the physical body, and so no inquiry is made. But, in fact, “flesh” in Scripture frequently includes far more than what is corporeal; all that is embraced by the term can only be ascertained by a diligent comparison of every occurrence of it and by a study of each separate context. Take the word “world.” The average reader of the Bible imagines this word is the equivalent for the human race, and consequently, many passages where the term is found are wrongly interpreted. Take the word “immortality.” Surely it requires no study! Obviously it has reference to the indestructibility of the soul. Ah, my reader, it is foolish and wrong to assume anything where the Word of God is concerned. If the reader will take the trouble to carefully examine each passage where “mortal” and “immortal” are found, it will be seen these words are never applied to the soul, but always to the body.

"Now what has been said on “flesh,” the “world,” “immortality,” applies with equal force to the terms “know” and “foreknow.” Instead of imagining that these words signify no more than a simple cognition, the different passages in which they occur require to be carefully weighed. The word “foreknowledge” is not found in the Old Testament. But “know” occurs there frequently. When that term is used in connection with God, it often signifies to regard with favour, denoting not mere cognition but an affection for the object in view. I know thee by name” (Ex 33:17). “Ye have been rebellious against the Lord from the day that I knew you” (Deut 9:24). “Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee” (Jer 1:5). “They have made princes and I knew it not” (Hos 8:4). “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (Amos 3:2). In these passages “knew” signifies either loved or appointed.

"In like manner, the word “know” is frequently used in the New Testament, in the same sense as in the Old Testament. “Then will I profess unto them, I never knew you” (Matt 7:23). “I am the good shepherd and know My sheep and am known of Mine” (John 10:14). “If any man love God, the same is known of Him” (I Cor 8:3). “The Lord knoweth them that are His” (II Tim 2:19).

"Now the word “foreknowledge” as it is used in the N.T. is less ambiguous than in its simple form “to know.” If every passage in which it occurs is carefully studied, it will be discovered that it is a moot point whether it ever has reference to the mere perception of events which are yet to take place. The fact is that “foreknowledge” is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons. It is persons God is said to “foreknow,” not the actions of those persons. In proof of this we shall now quote each passage where this expression is found.

"The first occurrence is in Acts 2:23. There we read, “Him being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain.” If careful attention is paid to the wording of this verse it will be seen that the apostle was not there speaking of God’s foreknowledge of the act of the crucifixion, but of the Person crucified: “Him [Christ] being delivered by . . .

"The second occurrence is in Romans 8:29, 30. “For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the Firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called . . .” Weigh well the pronoun that is used here. It is not what He did foreknow, but whom He did. It is not the surrendering of their wills nor believing of their hearts, but the persons themselves, which is here in view.

“God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew” — Romans 11:2. Once more the plain reference is to persons, and to persons only.

"The last mention is in I Peter 1:2: “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.” Who are “elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father”? The previous verse tells us: the reference is to the “strangers scattered,” i.e., the Diaspora, the Dispersion, the believing Jews. Thus, here too the reference is to persons, and not to their foreseen acts.

"Now in view of these passages (and there are no more) what scriptural ground is there for anyone saying God “foreknew” the acts of certain ones, viz., their “repenting and believing,” and that because of those acts He elected them unto salvation? The answer is: None whatever. Scripture never speaks of repentance and faith as being foreseen or foreknown by God. Truly, He did know from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.” The word uniformly refers to God’s foreknowing persons; then let us “hold fast the form of sound words” (II Tim 1:13)."

From Arthur Pink The Foreknowledge of God
Yes indeed. This is one of the articles I had read awhile ago that offered some healthy thoughts on this topic,! thanks for sharing!
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
1 Peter 1:1-2 - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Foreknowledge - To have awareness of something before it happens or exists.

Why do some change the definition to mean that something is determined to happen or exist?
Hello Baptizo, When you ask this question, could you explain what you mean by it? Do you think God does determine anything? Or not?
How you understand that question might lead to a solution on this. Could you give any examples from scripture that help you understand what God does, or does not do,? Thanks.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
The bible meaning of the word "to Know" often means an intimate knowledge of the person, many times husband and wife;
Gen:4 4 And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the Lord.

Gen.4:17 And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived,

25 And Adam knew his wife again; and she bare a son, and called his name Seth: For God, said she, hath appointed me another seed instead of Abel, whom Cain slew.

So when it appears in the NT. Mt.1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

So biblical foreknowledge is God having an intimate knowledge of the people, a special knowledge . romans 8:29..Whom He did Foreknow,
God knows who all men are because He knows everything. However Whom He did forknow is said to be those He set His love on.
All Christians should believe this as it is the biblical teaching. The Calvinists all believe it , but it looks like many do not see it.
Since we are going this direction with definitions, a Calvinist is going to have to explain to me why you can’t lose your salvation based upon their use of the word and the use of the same word in
Romans 1:21.
Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
It is the same Greek word without the “fore.” Let’s be consistent in our use of the language. I don’t see a relationship in either case. I have yet to find in Romans a case where the word is used in the context of a relationship. I will look deeper. If you happen to know of one or more please share them.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
"What is meant by “foreknowledge”? “To know beforehand,” is the ready reply of many.
"But we must not jump at conclusions, nor must we turn to Webster’s dictionary as the final court of appeal, for it is not a matter of the etymology of the term employed. What is needed is to find out how the word is used in Scripture. The Holy Spirit’s usage of an expression always defines its meaning and scope. It is failure to apply this simple rule which is responsible for so much confusion and error. So many people assume they already know the signification of a certain word used in Scripture, and then they are too dilatory to test their assumptions by means of a concordance. Let us amplify this point.

"Take the word “flesh.” Its meaning appears to be so obvious that many would regard it as a waste of time to look up its various connections in Scripture. It is hastily assumed that the word is synonymous with the physical body, and so no inquiry is made. But, in fact, “flesh” in Scripture frequently includes far more than what is corporeal; all that is embraced by the term can only be ascertained by a diligent comparison of every occurrence of it and by a study of each separate context. Take the word “world.” The average reader of the Bible imagines this word is the equivalent for the human race, and consequently, many passages where the term is found are wrongly interpreted. Take the word “immortality.” Surely it requires no study! Obviously it has reference to the indestructibility of the soul. Ah, my reader, it is foolish and wrong to assume anything where the Word of God is concerned. If the reader will take the trouble to carefully examine each passage where “mortal” and “immortal” are found, it will be seen these words are never applied to the soul, but always to the body.

"Now what has been said on “flesh,” the “world,” “immortality,” applies with equal force to the terms “know” and “foreknow.” Instead of imagining that these words signify no more than a simple cognition, the different passages in which they occur require to be carefully weighed. The word “foreknowledge” is not found in the Old Testament. But “know” occurs there frequently. When that term is used in connection with God, it often signifies to regard with favour, denoting not mere cognition but an affection for the object in view. I know thee by name” (Ex 33:17). “Ye have been rebellious against the Lord from the day that I knew you” (Deut 9:24). “Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee” (Jer 1:5). “They have made princes and I knew it not” (Hos 8:4). “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (Amos 3:2). In these passages “knew” signifies either loved or appointed.

"In like manner, the word “know” is frequently used in the New Testament, in the same sense as in the Old Testament. “Then will I profess unto them, I never knew you” (Matt 7:23). “I am the good shepherd and know My sheep and am known of Mine” (John 10:14). “If any man love God, the same is known of Him” (I Cor 8:3). “The Lord knoweth them that are His” (II Tim 2:19).

"Now the word “foreknowledge” as it is used in the N.T. is less ambiguous than in its simple form “to know.” If every passage in which it occurs is carefully studied, it will be discovered that it is a moot point whether it ever has reference to the mere perception of events which are yet to take place. The fact is that “foreknowledge” is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons. It is persons God is said to “foreknow,” not the actions of those persons. In proof of this we shall now quote each passage where this expression is found.

"The first occurrence is in Acts 2:23. There we read, “Him being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain.” If careful attention is paid to the wording of this verse it will be seen that the apostle was not there speaking of God’s foreknowledge of the act of the crucifixion, but of the Person crucified: “Him [Christ] being delivered by . . .

"The second occurrence is in Romans 8:29, 30. “For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the Firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called . . .” Weigh well the pronoun that is used here. It is not what He did foreknow, but whom He did. It is not the surrendering of their wills nor believing of their hearts, but the persons themselves, which is here in view.

“God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew” — Romans 11:2. Once more the plain reference is to persons, and to persons only.

"The last mention is in I Peter 1:2: “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.” Who are “elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father”? The previous verse tells us: the reference is to the “strangers scattered,” i.e., the Diaspora, the Dispersion, the believing Jews. Thus, here too the reference is to persons, and not to their foreseen acts.

"Now in view of these passages (and there are no more) what scriptural ground is there for anyone saying God “foreknew” the acts of certain ones, viz., their “repenting and believing,” and that because of those acts He elected them unto salvation? The answer is: None whatever. Scripture never speaks of repentance and faith as being foreseen or foreknown by God. Truly, He did know from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.” The word uniformly refers to God’s foreknowing persons; then let us “hold fast the form of sound words” (II Tim 1:13)."

From Arthur Pink The Foreknowledge of God
A dictionary doesn’t ever get the final say. I use Webster’s 1828 for Bible words. I don’t get my theology from one person who wrote the definitions for the American English language. Daniel Webster had every ability to misunderstand Scripture as people today. I don’t allow a foreknown dictionary to be chosen as the arbiter when you know (in an informational sense) what the author’s theology is based on the definitions he gives.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
Hello Baptizo, When you ask this question, could you explain what you mean by it? Do you think God does determine anything? Or not?
How you understand that question might lead to a solution on this. Could you give any examples from scripture that help you understand what God does, or does not do,? Thanks.
I have a problem with the idea that foreknowledge is the same thing as predetermining. They are different words and different meanings. This fact is made clear in
Romans 8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
If they were the same, he would not have said also. It is also important to recognize what was predestined to happen. It doesn’t say that they were predestined to know God.
The predestination is based on the foreknowledge of God.
It is great when you know what you have planted in your garden, to borrow an example from a previous post. I also have foreknowledge of what is coming up in my brother’s garden and I didn’t plant it. Foreknowledge can exist even when you didn’t do or are responsible for the things that are happening.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
I 'foreknow' what's coming up in my garden each year because I planted it:

Matthew Chapter 15

13​

But he answered and said, Every plant which my heavenly Father planted not, shall be rooted up.

Do you foreknow whether every plant will survive if any? You can plant them but you have to hope they will grow and survive to harvest.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
Since we are going this direction with definitions, a Calvinist is going to have to explain to me why you can’t lose your salvation based upon their use of the word and the use of the same word in
Romans 1:21.
Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
It is the same Greek word without the “fore.” Let’s be consistent in our use of the language. I don’t see a relationship in either case. I have yet to find in Romans a case where the word is used in the context of a relationship. I will look deeper. If you happen to know of one or more please share them.
Romans 8:29 is most often used...for Whom He did Foreknow-
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
I have a problem with the idea that foreknowledge is the same thing as predetermining. They are different words and different meanings. This fact is made clear in
Romans 8:29
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.
If they were the same, he would not have said also. It is also important to recognize what was predestined to happen. It doesn’t say that they were predestined to know God.
I think the verses you use here show a connection, or indeed the link you look for. There are five actions linked together. you can number them;
1] whom He foreknew
2] He also did Predestinate
3] them He also called
4] the called are justified
5] the justified are then glorified
The predestination is based on the foreknowledge of God.
Those who hold this link or chain so, no, that the foreknowledge of the persons, leads to a calling to come to Jesus. That then leads to predestination to be conformed to the image of Jesus. That is a good thing, right?
It is great when you know what you have planted in your garden, to borrow an example from a previous post. I also have foreknowledge of what is coming up in my brother’s garden and I didn’t plant it. Foreknowledge can exist even when you didn’t do or are responsible for the things that are happening.
The knowledge of the biblical term foreknowledge used in the way the quote from Aw.Pink was linked , does not mean that we know for sure who are those people who benefit from this chain of positive results. It would still be the every believing one of Jn3:15, 16 , don't you think that is so?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
1 Peter 1:1-2 - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Foreknowledge - To have awareness of something before it happens or exists.

Why do some change the definition to mean that something is determined to happen or exist?
This thread is a two for one deal. Both claimed meanings of the Greek word translated "foreknowledge" at Acts 2:23 and 1 Peter 1:1-2 are bogus.

Prognōsis (4268) literally means "before knowledge" and refers to knowledge acquired in the past being utilized in the present and never refers to future knowledge.

In Acts 2:23 Jesus is put to death by the previously declared plan and being implemented in the present by God.

In 1 Peter 1:1-2 people were chosen according to God's redemption plan method, being implemented in the present,

If you care to study the actual concept, you can also look at the related "verb" form of the Greek word, found at Acts 26:5, Romans 8:29, Romans 11:2, 1 Peter 1:20 and 2 Peter 3:17.

In every case an action to be taken in the present is based on prior knowledge of the past.

Study and learn.
 

Baptizo

Active Member
This thread is a two for one deal. Both claimed meanings of the Greek word translated "foreknowledge" at Acts 2:23 and 1 Peter 1:1-2 are bogus.

Prognōsis (4268) literally means "before knowledge" and refers to knowledge acquired in the past being utilized in the present and never refers to future knowledge.

In Acts 2:23 Jesus is put to death by the previously declared plan and being implemented in the present by God.

In 1 Peter 1:1-2 people were chosen according to God's redemption plan method, being implemented in the present,

If you care to study the actual concept, you can also look at the related "verb" form of the Greek word, found at Acts 26:5, Romans 8:29, Romans 11:2, 1 Peter 1:20 and 2 Peter 3:17.

In every case an action to be taken in the present is based on prior knowledge of the past.

Study and learn.

Okay… nobody asked you to come in here and start swinging around your theological sword or show off how well you know your Strong’s concordance. Besides, you never actually addressed the question.

Is Foreknowledge the same as determinism? A simple yes or no will do.
 

Baptizo

Active Member
Do you foreknow whether every plant will survive if any? You can plant them but you have to hope they will grow and survive to harvest.

Exactly.

Isaiah 5:4 - What could have been done more to my vineyard, that I have not done in it? wherefore, when I looked that it should bring forth grapes, brought it forth wild grapes?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Okay… nobody asked you to come in here and start swinging around your theological sword or show off how well you know your Strong’s concordance. Besides, you never actually addressed the question.

Is Foreknowledge the same as determinism? A simple yes or no will do.
When we post on this board, we are asking others to comment.

And I did address that the Greek word translated "foreknowledge" does not mean either awareness or determined.

If you think the insight concerning the meaning of "prognosis" was copied from Strong's, you are wrong. It came from study of the topic.

Try it, you might like it.;
 
Top