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The Definition Of “Foreknowledge”

atpollard

Well-Known Member
Based on God’s omniscience [He’s all knowing] and His omnipresence [He’s outside of our time dimension and is everywhere at all times] God knows who will repent and trust in Christ for the forgiveness of their sins. Therefore He elects [chooses] in His foreknowledge. G4268
However, 1 Peter 1:1-2 specifically states that God elects "through sanctification of the Spirit" ... which is a CAUSE and not a RESPONSE.

1 Peter 1:1-2 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

So there is a need to reconcile your implied "it is because we believed" with the scriptures explicit "it is because of the Spirit and God's election".
 

Brightfame52

Well-Known Member
1 Peter 1:1-2 - Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

Foreknowledge - To have awareness of something before it happens or exists.

Why do some change the definition to mean that something is determined to happen or exist?
Because it does denote predetermination biblically, Peter used the word like that here Acts 2:23

Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

The conjunction and kai links the two, it could be even or both as one thought.

And on top of that the word its self denotes a prearrangement prognōsis :

  1. foreknowledge
  2. forethought, pre-arrangement ,previous determination.

Topical Lexicon
Word Origin: Derived from πρό (pro, "before") and γινώσκω (ginōskō, "to know").
Corresponding Greek / Hebrew Entries: The concept of foreknowledge in the Hebrew Scriptures is often related to terms like ידע (yada, Strong's H3045), which means "to know." While there is no direct Hebrew equivalent for πρόγνωσις, the idea of God's knowledge and preordained plans is present throughout the Old Testament, particularly in the prophetic literature where God's plans for Israel and the nations are revealed.

Usage: The term πρόγνωσις is used in the New Testament to denote God's foreknowledge or preordained plan, particularly in the context of salvation and divine purpose.

Context: The Greek term πρόγνωσις appears in the New Testament primarily in theological contexts, emphasizing God's omniscience and sovereign will. It is used to describe God's foreknowledge of events and individuals, particularly in relation to His redemptive plan through Jesus Christ. This concept is foundational in understanding the doctrine of predestination and election, where God's foreknowledge is seen as an integral part of His divine plan.

In Acts 2:23, Peter speaks of Jesus being delivered up "by God's set plan and foreknowledge," highlighting the divine orchestration of the events leading to the crucifixion. This passage underscores the belief that God's foreknowledge is not merely passive awareness but involves active planning and purpose.

Similarly, in 1 Peter 1:2, believers are described as "chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father," indicating that God's foreknowledge is intimately connected with His choosing and calling of individuals to salvation. This reflects the understanding that God's knowledge of future events and decisions is comprehensive and purposeful.

The concept of πρόγνωσις assures believers of the certainty and reliability of God's promises, as His foreknowledge encompasses all aspects of time and existence. It provides comfort and assurance that God's plans are perfect and will ultimately be fulfilled according to His will.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
Ben, Do you think context can affect the meaning and use of a word, God so loved the world..God destroyed the world of the ungodly in Noah;s day. Same word different context. Can you find the word foreknowledge used more of events , rather than persons?
Context does affect the meaning of the word. Every use of the word in the book of Romans suggests information and not a relationship.
Show me otherwise.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
So Ben, are you saying for what God did foreknow, rather than whom He did foreknow? Are you sure you are reading this carefully?
Grammatically that question doesn’t make sense. We are not things we are persons.
Are you sure you are reading carefully?
Romans 8 is teaching that the believer is waiting for the redemption of his body.
Rom. 8:21-30
Because the creature itself also shall be delivered from the bondage of corruption into the glorious liberty of the children of God. For we know that the whole creation groaneth and travaileth in pain together until now. And not only they, but ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, even we ourselves groan within ourselves, waiting for the adoption, to wit, the redemption of our body. For we are saved by hope: but hope that is seen is not hope: for what a man seeth, why doth he yet hope for? But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it.
-- Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

It was a rough life in Rome and is really still not very great in comparison to what we are waiting for. The good news is that (in context) we have more than just salvation. Because whom he did foreknow ( this doesn’t mean have a relationship with you before you exist), ourselves also, which have the firstfruits of the Spirit, are still groaning with creation. But God in His omniscience has predestined them to be adopted, to be made the sons of God.

The context is the redemption of the body of the saved.

The context is not the choosing of who will be saved.
Do you think the context has anything to do with it?
 

Ben1445

Active Member
However, 1 Peter 1:1-2 specifically states that God elects "through sanctification of the Spirit" ... which is a CAUSE and not a RESPONSE.

1 Peter 1:1-2 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

So there is a need to reconcile your implied "it is because we believed" with the scriptures explicit "it is because of the Spirit and God's election".
God gives us the Holy Spirit to seal us unto the day of redemption. It is a response because we do not receive the Spirit until we are saved. It is through the Spirit because He is the one that is with us. He is the one that sanctifies us and keeps us. All of this is not through the foreknowledge of the Father, but according to.
It means that God knows information, details, and events, that haven't happened yet.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
You realize you are hinging your philosophy on an English translation of a word that had dual meanings in original text. You have to let context interpret the verse for you.
I don't let the context of Calvin or the reformed define the context. I leave that to Scripture.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
Rom_8:29, goes on to say that those who were predestined would be called, the called would be justified, and the justified would be glorified.

So, the sequence is foreknown —predestinated to be conformed to the image of Christ — called — justified — glorified.

We are not called, justified, and glorified because we have been predestined. Rather, we are predestined, called, justified, and glorified because we are foreknown by God.
Hello Silverhair,
Here is what the problem seems to be....The text does not read:

[ The Silverhair Version]
8:29- For the sequence is foreknown- the sequence is predestined to be conformed to the image of Christ- the sequence is called-justified-glorified. Let's look at it slowly and clearly;

29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Do you mean that God has no idea what is going to happen. is that what you are saying about crystal ball knowledge? I am not sure what you are saying.
Thanks for asking a question. You may know know how God accurately declares the end from the beginning. It is not by looking into the future and declaring what will occur in the fixed future. That is crystal ball theology and is as bogus as a 3 dollar bill.

When God declares something will happen, He then "fulfills" that declaration by causing whatever was declared to happen by intervening as necessary.

I am saying God has no idea of what will happen in the future? Yes and No. Events in the future which He plans to fulfill He knows. Events in the future He has chosen not to know, He does not know. God could establish a fixed future with Him knowing every detail, but scripture is very clear, that is not what God has chosen to do. Why? He says things happen by "chance." Thus He allows at lease some aspects of an unfixed future, which of course, provides for our autonomous choices and our responsibility for those choices. God is not the author of sin, which would be the case if God had fixed the future.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
However, 1 Peter 1:1-2 specifically states that God elects "through sanctification of the Spirit" ... which is a CAUSE and not a RESPONSE.

1 Peter 1:1-2 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.

So there is a need to reconcile your implied "it is because we believed" with the scriptures explicit "it is because of the Spirit and God's election".

Are you suggesting that there is another reason, other than faith, that a person would be sanctified by the Holy Spirit?

Compare:
Eph 1:13 And in Him, having heard and believed the word of truth—the gospel of your salvation—you were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit,
Eph 1:14 who is the pledge of our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession, to the praise of His glory.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Hello Silverhair,
Here is what the problem seems to be....The text does not read:

[ The Silverhair Version]
8:29- For the sequence is foreknown- the sequence is predestined to be conformed to the image of Christ- the sequence is called-justified-glorified. Let's look at it slowly and clearly;

29 For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren.

30 Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Yes you should look at it slowly

Rom 8:29 For those God foreknew,
1] He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son,
2] so that He would be the firstborn among many brothers.
Rom 8:30 And those He predestined,
3] He also called;
4] those He called, He also justified;
5] those He justified, He also glorified.

God foreknew those that were predestined to be conformed to the image of Jesus.

Those that were thus predestined were called, justified, and will be glorified.

That is not the Silverhair version that is God's version.

God knows all those that will freely trust in His son or do you not think God is omniscient?
 

Ben1445

Active Member
Ben, Do you think context can affect the meaning and use of a word, God so loved the world..God destroyed the world of the ungodly in Noah;s day. Same word different context. Can you find the word foreknowledge used more of events , rather than persons?
You think God is unable to love the people that he judges? you don't think that the invitation given to the people by Noah was a good faith invitation? Noah was lying to them? Or God just wanted Noah to take on a 120 year carpentry project to kill time?

To say that we need to find foreknowledge of events and things is to look for something that isn't a highlight of Scripture in the first place. God's Word is concerned primarily with people and does not focus on being a fortune teller. Not surprisingly, there are none that have nothing to do with people. There are some that are speaking of events.

1 Peter 1:19-21 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot: Who verily was foreordained (προγινώσκω proginṓskō verb) before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you, Who by him do believe in God, that raised him up from the dead, and gave him glory; that your faith and hope might be in God.

Here is an event that was foreknown. That Jesus would be crucified.
Revelation 13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
Acts 2:23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge (πρόγνωσις prognosis feminine noun) of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

The events of the cross were preplanned events.

Acts 26:1-5 Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Thou art permitted to speak for thyself. Then Paul stretched forth the hand, and answered for himself: I think myself happy, king Agrippa, because I shall answer for myself this day before thee touching all the things whereof I am accused of the Jews: Especially because I know thee to be expert in all customs and questions which are among the Jews: wherefore I beseech thee to hear me patiently. My manner of life from my youth, which was at the first among mine own nation at Jerusalem, know all the Jews;
Which knew (προγινώσκω proginṓskō verb) me from the beginning, if they would testify, that after the most straitest sect of our religion I lived a Pharisee.

Here Paul says that all the Jews had knowledge of what person he was and the events of his past. They were his teachers and classmates in synagogue.

Have you ever done any research on the roots of this word. it is a simple word to break down.

προγινώσκω proginṓskō, prog-in-oce'-ko


from G4253 προ (a primary preposition; "fore", i.e. in front of, prior to) and G1097 γινώσκω (a prolonged form of a primary verb; to "know"); to know beforehand, i.e. foresee

You probably don't need to look ate the preposition. it is self explanatory. If you look at the root word, it will help to give you a better understanding of the words use.
since there are over 200 uses of that one tense, I will not list them here.
I will also say that even in the physical relationship sense, there is application of the definition in information. it sounds a little odd but it is far more discreet. Mary said that she has no knowledge of any man. it conveys the meaning without going into detail. It is also an accurate representation of the concept. I will finish with that because I have no desire to explain in any greater detail.

There is no use of the words in question that cannot be understood with the definition of knowledge of information rather than relationship. There are times when the reformed definition can be overlaid because the topics are related. that does not make it the right way to study.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
Because it does denote predetermination biblically, Peter used the word like that here Acts 2:23

Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:

The conjunction and kai links the two, it could be even or both as one thought.

And on top of that the word its self denotes a prearrangement prognōsis :

  1. foreknowledge
  2. forethought, pre-arrangement ,previous determination.


there are two different concepts that you have highlighted and merged into one thought. God is not bound to do both together. He is able to know without forcing something to happen.
 

Zaatar71

Active Member
[/QUOTE]
Ben,
We can see you want to oppose truth here. You back up a few verses and now try to suggest that Adoption is the full context?
Ben, how about 8:1 :
There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. Looks like Paul gives the context of this chapter right here.
1] No condemnation

2] to those who are In Christ

3] Who have the Spirit indwelling them

9 But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

All of Chapter 8 is about this.... It looks as if you want to fragment it. You do not accept what the teaching indicates, so you try and explain it away . Do you think it is possible, that on an emotional level you do not like the idea of what this teaches so you will look for any "possible loophole to explain it away? It seems as if you heard a voice from Heaven saying Ben this is the truth, you might look to explain it away.
 
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