KJB1611reader
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3 ܘܒܰܫܢܰܬ ܚܕܰܥܶܣܖ̈ܶܐ ܠܡܰܠܟܳܐ ܨܶܕܰܩܝܳܐ. ܒܝܰܪܚܳܐ ܚܡܺܝܫܳܝܳܐ ܒܰܬܫܰܥܬܳܐ ܒܶܗ ܒܝܰܪܚܳܐ. ܥܫܶܢ ܟܰܦܢܳܐ ܒܰܩܪܺܝܬܳܐ. ܘܠܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ ܗܘܳܐ ܠܰܚܡܳܐ ܠܥܰܡܳܐ
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Lol. HilariousFourth month is right, also previous versions also had no month attached but now is divinly added to the Bible. Another time KJB corrects the Hebrew.
Okay, but the niv also have four.Lol. Hilarious
Then please tell me why 'four' is not in Hebrew.I was laughing at you saying that the KJV corrects the Hebrew.
As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.Hello Community,
I wish to make an apology and correction:
The KJB didn't correct the Hebrew first, the Covedale and Matthew's versions did.
Shawn
As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.
David, don't tell me the KJB is wrong with calling God a 'it' if don't want me 'correcting the original languages.' God gave the Greek in the neutral form, not masculine.As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.
But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into English, we have to refer to tables and cars as "she". English doesn't have grammatically masculine, feminine and neuter nouns. We use "he" for males, "she" for females, and "it" for things. So using "it" in English for the Holy Spirit would only be correct if the Holy Spirit were a thing.David, don't tell me the KJB is wrong with calling God a 'it' if don't want me 'correcting the original languages.' God gave the Greek in the neutral form, not masculine.
We use 'her' for ships.But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into English, we have to refer to tables and cars as "she". English doesn't have grammatically masculine, feminine and neuter nouns. We use "he" for males, "she" for females, and "it" for things. So using "it" in English for the Holy Spirit would only be correct if the Holy Spirit were a thing.
Yes, that's the exception. But that doesn't make "ship" a grammatically feminine noun.We use 'her' for ships.
John Gill had no issue calling God a 'it.'Yes, that's the exception. But that doesn't make "ship" a grammatically feminine noun.
Have you got a quote from Gill where he refers to God as "it?"John Gill had no issue calling God a 'it.'
May I ask, if I give the answer will change anything?Have you got a quote from Gill where he refers to God as "it?"
I simply meant that if you just say, "John Gill had no issue calling God a 'it.'" the rest of us have no idea what it was from John Gill's writings that gave you the idea that he had no issues with calling God "it". If you answered and said, "Here is a passage from Gill's works where he referred to God as "it," and then quoted the passage, we would be able to read it for ourselves and see whether he approved of calling God "it."May I ask, if I give the answer will change anything?