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2 Kings 25:3 - inspired italic

KJB1611reader

Active Member
3 ܘܒܰܫܢܰܬ ܚܕܰܥܶܣܖ̈ܶܐ ܠܡܰܠܟܳܐ ܨܶܕܰܩܝܳܐ. ܒܝܰܪܚܳܐ ܚܡܺܝܫܳܝܳܐ ܒܰܬܫܰܥܬܳܐ ܒܶܗ ܒܝܰܪܚܳܐ. ܥܫܶܢ ܟܰܦܢܳܐ ܒܰܩܪܺܝܬܳܐ. ܘܠܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ ܗܘܳܐ ܠܰܚܡܳܐ ܠܥܰܡܳܐ
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
Hello Community,

I wish to make an apology and correction:

The KJB didn't correct the Hebrew first, the Covedale and Matthew's versions did.

Shawn
As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.

Dear David, its either that 'four' wasn't there or it was accidenly left out. And preserved in some other manuscript or completely being divinly inspired. Just like 'brother of' in Goliath. Or it was implied.

So, should we remove 'four?' Or maybe there is a Hebrew manuscript with 'four', where is it?

Shawn, a Bible believer.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
As the Old Testament was originally in Hebrew, if you say the Hebrew needed correcting by English translations made hundreds of years later, you must believe that God gave people a faulty bible to start with, and left them with it for hundreds of years.
David, don't tell me the KJB is wrong with calling God a 'it' if don't want me 'correcting the original languages.' God gave the Greek in the neutral form, not masculine.
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
David, don't tell me the KJB is wrong with calling God a 'it' if don't want me 'correcting the original languages.' God gave the Greek in the neutral form, not masculine.
But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into English, we have to refer to tables and cars as "she". English doesn't have grammatically masculine, feminine and neuter nouns. We use "he" for males, "she" for females, and "it" for things. So using "it" in English for the Holy Spirit would only be correct if the Holy Spirit were a thing.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
But Greek isn't English. Some languages make all their nouns masculine, feminine and neuter. For example, in Latin, the word for "table" is "mensa", which is a feminine noun. In French, the word for "car" is "voiture," which is a feminine noun, That doesn't mean that when translating into English, we have to refer to tables and cars as "she". English doesn't have grammatically masculine, feminine and neuter nouns. We use "he" for males, "she" for females, and "it" for things. So using "it" in English for the Holy Spirit would only be correct if the Holy Spirit were a thing.
We use 'her' for ships.
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
Interesting, Gnv had masculine. Well well well.

Bishops Bible 1568​

I wyll also put enmitie betweene thee & the woman, betweene thy seede and her seede: and it shall treade downe thy head, and thou shalt treade vpon his heele

Geneva Bible 1560/1599​

I will also put enimitie betweene thee and the woman, and betweene thy seede and her seede. He shall breake thine head, and thou shalt bruise his heele.

The Great Bible 1539​

I will also put enemytie betwene the & the woman, betwene thy sede and hyr sede: The same shall treade downe thy head, and thou shalt treade vpon hys hele.

Matthew's Bible 1537​

Moreouer, I wyll put hatred betwene the & the woman, & betwene thy seed and her seed. And that seed shall tread the on thy heed, and thou shalt treade it on the hele.

Coverdale Bible 1535​

And I wyll put enemyte betwene the and the woman, and betwene yi sede and hir sede. The same shal treade downe thy heade, and thou shalt treade him on the hele.

Wycliffe Bible 1382​

Y schal sette enemytees bitwixe thee and the womman, and bitwixe thi seed and hir seed; sche schal breke thin heed, and thou schalt sette aspies to hir heele.
 

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
May I ask, if I give the answer will change anything?
I simply meant that if you just say, "John Gill had no issue calling God a 'it.'" the rest of us have no idea what it was from John Gill's writings that gave you the idea that he had no issues with calling God "it". If you answered and said, "Here is a passage from Gill's works where he referred to God as "it," and then quoted the passage, we would be able to read it for ourselves and see whether he approved of calling God "it."
 
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