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Isaiah 14:12 is speaking of the Bablyonian king.
Could you imagine naming a son "Lucifer" today?
This highlights a major issue with the KJV (not the translation itself but using a translation not in the vernacular).No, Lucifer is Satan
Well, a translator of the King James Bible wrote in his book about Lucifer and.indirectly saith.he.is.Satan.This highlights a major issue with the KJV (not the translation itself but using a translation not in the vernacular).
Obviously "Lucifer" is not a name for Satan (even in the KJV). But today people are not versed in Latin (whereas just over a century ago it was commonplace).
Scripture uses the exact same imagery in referring to Jesus. "Lucifer" refers to a high and exalted place (the morning star). I am sure the translators of the KJV knew this, and they were fine using "Lucifer" as Latin was commonly known (it represents the Hebrew name for Venus).
But while the KJV keeping the Latin can't be called an error, and it made sence at the time, it leads to misunderstanding today.
As evidence, consider your misunderstanding that "Lucifer" is a proper name.
Consider the passage is actually a taunt directed at the Bablyonian king.
Is it also an allegory for Satan? I believe so.
But "Lucifer" is not a proper name for Satan, except in modern tradition.
Well, a translator of the King James Bible wrote in his book about Lucifer and.indirectly saith.he.is.Satan.
I believe the imagery represents Satan. I agree with that part. It is a fall from grace, or a falling from an exalted place or position.Well, a translator of the King James Bible wrote in his book about Lucifer and.indirectly saith.he.is.Satan.
Exactly. You prove my point...that Latin did not even exist when Isaiah was written....the word is helel (lower case, not a name but a description).No, Satan's name is Lucifer.
Well, maybe but I am sure there are sources rebuking this.Exactly. You prove my point...that Latin did not even exist when Isaiah was written....the word is helel (lower case, not a name but a description).
If anybody wants to know why I am opposed to insisting on the KJV, this is why.
Not only must one study Scripture but one has to be careful to study how words in an antiquated target language were used.
I have sat through enough sermons erroneously using John 3:16 because the "so" takes on a different idea today.
I have listened to well meaning people describe "Lucifer's" falling based on a taunt God, in Isaiah 14, told the Isralites to shout at the Bablyonian king.
This is NOTHING against the KJV itself. But it is a caution that should one decide to use an antiquated translation they need to be more careful than @KJB1611reader lest ones faith become a mythology.
"So" in John 3:16 means "thusly" or "in this way"
"Lucifer" means "morning star", "Venus", as an exalted position.
This thread proves my concern with the KJV use today. The language is antiquated to the point the translation is no longer understood by many and false conclusions arise from that misunderstanding.
This is why I advocate for translations of God's Word in the language of the target audience.
There are no legitimate sources rebuking that.Well, maybe but I am sure there are sources rebuking this.
Most take the taunt as applying to Satan as well because of the language.
Yes, he does. The King of Babylon is the Interpretation about who, in actual time and space, is being addressed, the way the hearers of the Word would have understood it to mean, at that time. Then, with all the parallels which are reminiscent of Satan, we have the King as 'the antitype of the devil, as John of Japan quotes Ryrie on, below. To refer this to Satan would simply be an Application based on the activities of the King, in Typology.Isaiah 14:12 is speaking of the Bablyonian king.
God tells Israel to take up that taunt against the king of Bablyon when He delivers them.
Every modern reference has added all that in for some reason. Somebody wanted to pretend they were synonyms.You could substitute "Venus", "bright and morning star", or "day star" for "Lucifer". They are synonyms.
The word is helel . In the Jerome Bible it is translated lucifer. It is not a proper name but a word signifying the planet Venus, which is known as the morning star (it is typically the brightest "star", the first ti be visible at night and the last to become obscured).
I see that in every modern publication I've come across; however, I can't see it in other august and venerable older reference materials."Lucifer" means "morning star", "Venus", as an exalted position.
I have no trouble saying the King of Babylon in his self glorification exactly describes the activities of Satan (called in English "Lucifer" in many contexts, following the KJV) when he fell.
I like what Ryrie says here. The King of Babylon is the primary and only actual 'INTERPRETATION'.Ryrie then goes on to quote famous commentator Delitzsch as saying, "A retrospective glance is now cast at the self-deification of the king of Babylon, in which he was the antitype of the devil and the type of antichrist (Dan_11:36; 2Th_2:4), and which had met with its reward."
Older reference materials show that they were and are synonyms.Every modern reference has added all that in for some reason. Somebody wanted to pretend they were synonyms.
I see that in every modern publication I've come across; however, I can't see it in other august and venerable older reference materials.
Ancient Near Eastern ideology likened rulers to heavenly bodies. The taunt was mocking Nebuchadnezzar II, likening hum to the morning star (to Venus) and saying that God would bring him down to Sheol.Yes, he does. The King of Babylon is the Interpretation about who, in actual time and space, is being addressed, the way the hearers of the Word would have understood it to mean, at that time. Then, with all the parallels which are reminiscent of Satan, we have the King as 'the antitype of the devil, as John of Japan quotes Ryrie on, below. To refer this to Satan would simply be an Application based on the activities of the King, in Typology.
Every modern reference has added all that in for some reason. Somebody wanted to pretend they were synonyms.
I see that in every modern publication I've come across; however, I can't see it in other august and venerable older reference materials.
I see it as a trick of Satan to diminish Jesus, with Whom the term "morning star" is associated elsewhere in the Bible.
I like what Ryrie says here. The King of Babylon is the primary and only actual 'INTERPRETATION'.
Once we have the 'INTERPRETATION', it then may have another 'APPLICATION', as John of Japan shows us in this case;
"the king of Babylon, in which he was the antitype of the devil and the type of antichrist (Dan_11:36; 2Th_2:4), and which had met with its reward." (In both cases, the King and Satan.)
...
"In the King James Bible, Isaiah 14:12, 15 reads:
"How are thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!
... Yet thou shalt be brought down to hell."
"However, the New International Version pens:
"How you have fallen from heaven O morning star, son of the dawn
... but you are brought down to the grave."
"Indeed, the New American Standard and all the modern versions read almost
exactly like the NIV (except the NKJV). Yet historically Isaiah 14 has been cited
throughout the Church as the singular biography and identification of Lucifer
[G.A. Riplinger, New Age Bible Versions, (Munroe Falls, OH: A.V. Publications,
1993), pp. 40–55]. In verse twelve of the King James, Lucifer is in heaven; in
verse fifteen Satan is in hell, and the continuing context establishes that Lucifer
and Satan are one and the same being. The new versions have removed the name
"Lucifer" thereby eliminating the only reference to his true identity in the entire
Bible – yet the change in these versions is not the result of translation from the
Hebrew language.
"The Hebrew here is helel, ben shachar (rx;v'-!B, lleyhe), which translates "Lucifer,
son of the morning" (as is found in all the old English translations written before
1611 when the KJB was published). The NIV, NASB et al. read as though the
Hebrew was kokab shachar, ben shachar or "morning star, son of the dawn" (or
"son of the morning"). But not only is the Hebrew word for star (bk'AK – kokab)
nowhere to be found in the text, "morning" appears only once as given in the KJB
– not twice as the modern versions indicate.
"Moreover, the word kokab is translated as "star" dozens of other times by the
translators of these new "bibles". Their editors also know that kokab boqer (rq,bo
bk'AK) is "morning star" for it appears in plural form at Job 38:7 (i.e., morning
stars). Had the Lord intended "morning star" in Isaiah 14, He could have
eliminated any confusion by repeating kokab boqer (rq,bo bk'AK) there. God's
selection of helel (lleyhe, Hebrew for Lucifer) is unique as it appears nowhere else
in the Old Testament.
"Moreover, Revelation 22:16 (also 2:28 and II Pet.1:19) declares unequivocally that
Jesus Christ is the "morning star" or "day star" (II Pet. 1:19, cp. Luk. 1:78; Mal.
4:2), meaning the sun – not the planet Venus.
I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the
churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and
morning star.
"Thus it must be understood that the identification of Lucifer as being the morning
star does not find its roots in the Hebrew O.T., but from classical mythology and
witchcraft where he is connected with the planet Venus (the morning "star").
"The wording in the modern versions reads such that it appears the fall recorded
in Isaiah 14 is speaking of Jesus rather than Lucifer the Devil! The rendering of
"morning star" in place of "Lucifer" in this passage must be seen by the Church as
nothing less than the ultimate blasphemy.
"The NASV compounds its role as malefactor by placing II Peter 1:19
in the reference next to Isaiah 14 thereby solidifying the impression
that the passage refers to Christ Jesus rather than Satan.
"But Lucifer (helel) does not mean 'morning star'. It is Latin (from lux or
lucis = light, plus fero = to bring) meaning "bright one", "light bearer" or "light
bringer". Due to the brightness of the planet Venus, from ancient times the word
"Lucifer" has been associated in secular and/or pagan works with that heavenly
body.
"Furthermore, c.207 AD [nearly 200 years before Jerome translated helel (lleyhe) as
"Lucifer" in his Latin Vulgate], Tertullian, the founder of Latin Christianity,
undeniably understood Isaiah 14:12–15 and Ezekiel 28:11–17 in the light of Luke
10:18 as applying to the fall of Satan [Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. III, Roberts and
Donaldson, eds., (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans Pub. Co., 1980 rpt.), "Against
Marcion", Bk. II, ch. x, p. 306, cp. Bk. V, ch. xi, p. 454 and ch. xvii, p. 466].
"Also writing in his De Principiis around 200 years before Jerome, Origen (c.185–c.254)
clearly and undeniably applied the fall of Satan in Luke 10:18 to that of Lucifer's
in Isaiah 14 [Ante-Nicene Fathers, Vol. IV, (1982 rpt.), Bk. I, ch. v, para. 5, p. 259.]
"Among the modern versions, only the King James (and NKJV) gives proof that
Lucifer is Satan. Without its testimony, this central vital truth would soon be
lost. This fact alone sets the King James Bible apart from and far above all
modern would-be rivals. Truly, it is an achievement sui generis.
"Indeed, the older English versions (the 1560 Geneva etc.) also read "Lucifer".
"The clarion has been faithfully and clearly sounded (I Cor.14:8). If the reader is
not greatly alarmed by the above, it is pointless for him to continue reading.
"However, if concern has been aroused as to how this deception has been foisted
not only upon the Christian Church, but on the general public as well – read on.
"The story lies before you."
"Heaven and earth shall pass away: but my words shall not pass away", Mark 13:31.
From: "WHICH VERSION IS THE BIBLE?" (.pdf), by FLOYD NOLEN JONES, Th.D., Ph.D.