KJB1611reader
Active Member
The NIV and ESV refer to Jesus as an “it” in 1 John 1:2.
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It's the Greek word for "see" or "behold".3708 is what?
But it was you who asked what 3708 was. I replied that it is the Strong's number for the Greek word translated "seen". So you didn't know you were talking about "seen", but you were, because you mentioned the Strong's number for the Greek word for "seen."I am not talking about 'seen.'
My apologises.But it was you who asked what 3708 was. I replied that it is the Strong's number for the Greek word translated "seen". So you didn't know you were talking about "seen", but you were, because you mentioned the Strong's number for the Greek word for "seen."
Why didst thou refrence this strong number?3708 from Blue Bible - does not show "it"
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1 John 1 :: New International Version (NIV)
1 John 1 - The life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and has appeared to us.www.blueletterbible.org
The KJV also has "it" at 1 John 1:2, and the pronoun "it" refers back to the noun "life", not directly back to a proper noun Jesus.The NIV and ESV refer to Jesus as an “it” in 1 John 1:2.
The KJV also has "it" at 1 John 1:2, and the pronoun "it" refers back to the noun "life", not directly back to a proper noun Jesus.
That's fine. I'm sure it was a genuine mistake. Thanks.My apologises.
For ethe life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us; (kjv)3708 is what?
So, 'it' is implied?For ethe life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us; (kjv)
3708 is the word in question (no "it" or "him").
"we have seen, testify, proclaim"
No, I am saying other translations same in this verse.He is talking about "the life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life".
"It" is appropriate here (in the English language anyway). This is not exactly calling Jesus "it" any more than calling Jesus the life is calling Jesus "it" (in the sentence you wouldn't call "the life" a "him").
@KJB1611reader is simply trying to diminish and slander God's Word if not his preferred translation. He is putting himself above God.
That's fine because he is very close to being banned for slandering God's Word (forum rules dealing with translations applies even to those ignorant of translations).
I wouldn't say "implied", but necessary in the English language to make a complete sentence.So, 'it' is implied?
Sorry if I misunderstood.No, I am saying other translations same in this verse.