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The NIV and ESV refer to Jesus as an “it” in 1 John 1:2

David Lamb

Well-Known Member
I am not talking about 'seen.'
But it was you who asked what 3708 was. I replied that it is the Strong's number for the Greek word translated "seen". So you didn't know you were talking about "seen", but you were, because you mentioned the Strong's number for the Greek word for "seen."
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
But it was you who asked what 3708 was. I replied that it is the Strong's number for the Greek word translated "seen". So you didn't know you were talking about "seen", but you were, because you mentioned the Strong's number for the Greek word for "seen."
My apologises.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
He is talking about "the life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life".

"It" is appropriate here (in the English language anyway). This is not exactly calling Jesus "it" any more than calling Jesus the life is calling Jesus "it" (in the sentence you wouldn't call "the life" a "him").

@KJB1611reader is simply trying to diminish and slander God's Word if not his preferred translation. He is putting himself above God.

That's fine because he is very close to being banned for slandering God's Word (forum rules dealing with translations applies even to those ignorant of translations).
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
3708 is what?
For ethe life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us; (kjv)

3708 is the word in question (no "it" or "him").

"we have seen, testify, proclaim"
 
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KJB1611reader

Active Member
For ethe life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us; (kjv)

3708 is the word in question (no "it" or "him").

"we have seen, testify, proclaim"
So, 'it' is implied?
 

KJB1611reader

Active Member
He is talking about "the life appeared; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you the eternal life".

"It" is appropriate here (in the English language anyway). This is not exactly calling Jesus "it" any more than calling Jesus the life is calling Jesus "it" (in the sentence you wouldn't call "the life" a "him").

@KJB1611reader is simply trying to diminish and slander God's Word if not his preferred translation. He is putting himself above God.

That's fine because he is very close to being banned for slandering God's Word (forum rules dealing with translations applies even to those ignorant of translations).
No, I am saying other translations same in this verse.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
So, 'it' is implied?
I wouldn't say "implied", but necessary in the English language to make a complete sentence.

I could say "is me". But it would make more sence to say "It is me".

The KJV (I think most, if not all, other translations) do the same.

One cannot simoly find words in English matching words in Hebrew, Greek, or Arabic and have a translation.

The source language (here the Greek) is different....not the same just using Hebrew words.
 
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