David Lamb
Well-Known Member
In that case, why are the words in italics in the KJV? Italics are used when English words have been inserted by the translators which do not translate any word(s) in the original language. Don't misunderstand me. I am not saying that the verse isn't referring to God's love. The context shows that it is. You say that the words "of God" ARE found in the Greek texts that underlie the King James Bible, but then in the next post you quote John Gill saying: "The phrase "of God" is not in the Oriental versions, nor in the Greek copies, but is in the Complutensian edition, and in the Vulgate Latin version, and is favoured by the Syriac version." So are you saying that the KJV is based on the Complutensian, the Vulgate and the Syriac?This is Untrue:
The words "of God" ARE found in the Greek texts that underlie the King James Bible.
The entire Greek phrase "the love OF GOD" is found in Beza's Greek texts of 1589 and 1598, the Complutensian polyglot version of 1514, the ancient Armenian bible, the Latin Clementine Vulgate - "In hoc cognovimus caritatem Dei"., Greek manuscript 52, as well as the Greek text of the Trinitarian Bible Society put out in 1894.
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