Have you ever noticed the diversity of TRANSLATIONS of the verses in Isaiah 53?
Such things are critically important to people like me that know NOTHING significant of Greek or Hebrew grammar and must trust the translations for subtlety of meaning (thus we look to many translations for critical passages).
Here is just one example:
Isaiah 53:10
[KJV]
Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
[NLT]
But it was the LORD’s good plan to crush him
and cause him grief.
Yet when his life is made an offering for sin,
he will have many descendants.
He will enjoy a long life,
and the LORD’s good plan will prosper in his hands.
[
I know people criticize the 'paraphrase' nature of NLT, but sometimes it is more useful to hear the "general idea" rather than "exact wording".]
[NIV]
Yet it was the LORD’s will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the LORD makes his life an offering for sin, he will see his offspring and prolong his days, and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
[ESV]
Yet it was the will of the LORD to crush him;
he has put him to grief;
when his soul makes an offering for guilt,
he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days;
the will of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.
[AMP]
Yet the LORD was willing
To crush Him, causing Him to suffer;
If He would give Himself as a guilt offering [an atonement for sin],
He shall see His [spiritual] offspring,
He shall prolong His days,
And the will (good pleasure) of the LORD shall succeed and prosper in His hand.
[YLT]
And Jehovah hath delighted to bruise him, He hath made him sick, If his soul doth make an offering for guilt, He seeth seed -- he prolongeth days, And the pleasure of Jehovah in his hand doth prosper.
The differences are SIGNIFICANT!
- in some, it was the Lord's WILL
- in some, it was the Lord's PLAN
- in some, it was the Lord's ACTION
What GOD "plans", what GOD "desires" and what GOD actively "does" (personally) ... Does it make a difference? I think it makes an important difference. If the experts disagree on what the Hebrew SAYS, how can I parse so subtle of a meaning to determine exactly what part the LORD played in the "crushing/suffering" of Christ?
Same with the second part ...
- God offered the son (no choice)
- The Son offered himself (Jesus choice) for guilt.
- The act of offering (himself) gained many offspring.
So which is it? Depending on the translation, what is happening is VERY DIFFERENT!
No wonder we have so much disagreement ... even the EXPERTS offer us disagreement in the basic TRUTH from which we must start.
All we can know for certain is the commonality:
Jesus suffered and died.
It was no accident.
Guilt was removed.
From that came "us" (the Church).
That is the old "Christus Victor" theory of atonement as a starting point.