Romans 3:10-11 As it is written: "There is none righteous (does good), no, not one; There is none who understands; There is none who seeks after God.
The immediate context. Vs. 9 "We" Paul is referring to Jews. "Them" is referring to Gentiles. Both Jew and Gentile under the same condition. This is the bigger context also.
Romans 3:10-12, quotes Psalms 14 and Isaiah 53 in general.
Romans 3:13-18 Paul quotes Psalms 14.
Romans 3:23 quotes Isaiah 53:6 and other places Isaiah 53 overall is drawn from by Paul when making his point in Romans.
It's clear that many people 'seek God' who remain lost. It's how honestly one seeks the kingdom of God that separates the ones who find it from the ones who don't. There are many who "seek" to enter and will not be able to.
Luke 13:24 "Strive to enter through the narrow gate, for many, I say to you, will seek to enter and will not be able.
Read Psalm 14 for context to see what Paul was quoting in Romans 3.
Psalm 14:1-7 To the Chief Musician. A Psalm of David. The fool has said in his heart, "There is no God." They are corrupt, They have done abominable works, There is none who does good. The Lord looks down from heaven upon the children of men, To see if there are any who understand, who seek God. They have all turned aside, They have together become corrupt; There is none who does good, No, not one. Have all the workers of iniquity no knowledge, Who eat up my people as they eat bread, And do not call on the Lord? There they are in great fear, For God is with the generation of the righteous. You shame the counsel of the poor, But the Lord is his refuge. Oh, that the salvation of Israel would come out of Zion! When the Lord brings back the captivity of His people, Let Jacob rejoice and Israel be glad.
How does one 'become corrupt' and 'turn aside' who was born that way already? Why does David say "the fool has said in his heart"? Why not 'all men have said in their heart...'? All these conditions and problems are qualified with "workers of iniquity" and basically Gentiles for the most part. This is how the Jews of that time would have understood it. It's not a Jewish problem, it's a Gentile problem.
It's clear that there is a possibility of righteousness within that same context, as God is near, or with them. "For God is with the generation of the righteous." That would be the Jews, how they seen themselves in that passage.
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Interesting that Augustine interpreted " There is none who does good, No, not one" The "not one" as "except One", speaking of Jesus, which really fits the context of justification that Paul was pushing in Romans when he quoted it. Isaiah 53 and the surrounding context of Romans is clearly about that very same thing, Jesus being the justifier because he alone is righteous [by God's standards].
John Owen qualifies vs. 2-3 in chapter 3 with "all fools" from vs. 1. Practical atheists who persecute God.
Good article. Both Augustine and Owens quoted from this source.
Does Psalm 14 Apply to All of Humanity?
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Romans 3:21-24 Since nobody can be justified by the works of the Law, Paul then offers the 'good news' of righteousness by faith for all those who believe.
The context is justification. Man lacks the moral ability to be righteous. To be declared righteous. To be justified by the Law. That's the way Paul was using it. Paul quotes Psalm 14 to show that both Jews and Gentiles are under sin. His main point in saying that was that the Jews and Gentiles alike are in the same spiritual predicament. Paul makes it abundantly clear in Romans 3 and beyond that it's not a Gentile problem, but a "Jew and Gentile" problem.
To sum up Paul's point, vs. 23 of chapter 3 does a nice job of it.
23 "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," (Both Jew and Gentile ....) see vs 24-31 and into chapter 4 as the flow continues, using Abraham as an example [Who was imputed with Christ's righteousness].
See how the message is consistent if we understand that what is being emphasized is that man cannot justify himself? Why? Because there is none righteous, none that does good (Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19-John 15:5).
The context is justification and the ability to do good by righteous standards and justify ones self.
So why does Paul add "There is none who seeks after God." to His quote from the OT?
It would seem to be an odd thing to say if we take it at face value since Isaiah said this.
Isaiah 55:6 Seek the Lord while He may be found, Call upon Him while He is near. And other places Psalm 9:10, 22:46, 40:16, 1 Chronicles 28:9, Hosea 10:12, etc.
Paul adds "there is none who seeks after God" in Romans 3 for a reason when quoting Psalms, that reason is up for debate, but taking that statement literally and defining it on an island doesn't fit with the rest of Scripture. Since Psalms 14 and Isaiah 53 lays that definition on the Gentiles (Isaiah 53:4,6.). Paul was making clear that it's just as much a problem for Jews as it is for Gentiles.
Remember that even Peter said to be careful when examining Paul's letters and not to read into them any false ideas.
2 Peter 3:15-16 and consider that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation--as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written to you, as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures.
The immediate context. Vs. 9 "We" Paul is referring to Jews. "Them" is referring to Gentiles. Both Jew and Gentile under the same condition. This is the bigger context also.
Romans 3:10-12, quotes Psalms 14 and Isaiah 53 in general.
Romans 3:13-18 Paul quotes Psalms 14.
Romans 3:23 quotes Isaiah 53:6 and other places Isaiah 53 overall is drawn from by Paul when making his point in Romans.
It's clear that many people 'seek God' who remain lost. It's how honestly one seeks the kingdom of God that separates the ones who find it from the ones who don't. There are many who "seek" to enter and will not be able to.
Luke 13:24 "Strive to enter through the narrow gate, for many, I say to you, will seek to enter and will not be able.
Read Psalm 14 for context to see what Paul was quoting in Romans 3.
Psalm 14:1-7 To the Chief Musician. A Psalm of David. The fool has said in his heart, "There is no God." They are corrupt, They have done abominable works, There is none who does good. The Lord looks down from heaven upon the children of men, To see if there are any who understand, who seek God. They have all turned aside, They have together become corrupt; There is none who does good, No, not one. Have all the workers of iniquity no knowledge, Who eat up my people as they eat bread, And do not call on the Lord? There they are in great fear, For God is with the generation of the righteous. You shame the counsel of the poor, But the Lord is his refuge. Oh, that the salvation of Israel would come out of Zion! When the Lord brings back the captivity of His people, Let Jacob rejoice and Israel be glad.
How does one 'become corrupt' and 'turn aside' who was born that way already? Why does David say "the fool has said in his heart"? Why not 'all men have said in their heart...'? All these conditions and problems are qualified with "workers of iniquity" and basically Gentiles for the most part. This is how the Jews of that time would have understood it. It's not a Jewish problem, it's a Gentile problem.
It's clear that there is a possibility of righteousness within that same context, as God is near, or with them. "For God is with the generation of the righteous." That would be the Jews, how they seen themselves in that passage.
---------------
Interesting that Augustine interpreted " There is none who does good, No, not one" The "not one" as "except One", speaking of Jesus, which really fits the context of justification that Paul was pushing in Romans when he quoted it. Isaiah 53 and the surrounding context of Romans is clearly about that very same thing, Jesus being the justifier because he alone is righteous [by God's standards].
John Owen qualifies vs. 2-3 in chapter 3 with "all fools" from vs. 1. Practical atheists who persecute God.
Good article. Both Augustine and Owens quoted from this source.
Does Psalm 14 Apply to All of Humanity?
---------------
Romans 3:21-24 Since nobody can be justified by the works of the Law, Paul then offers the 'good news' of righteousness by faith for all those who believe.
The context is justification. Man lacks the moral ability to be righteous. To be declared righteous. To be justified by the Law. That's the way Paul was using it. Paul quotes Psalm 14 to show that both Jews and Gentiles are under sin. His main point in saying that was that the Jews and Gentiles alike are in the same spiritual predicament. Paul makes it abundantly clear in Romans 3 and beyond that it's not a Gentile problem, but a "Jew and Gentile" problem.
To sum up Paul's point, vs. 23 of chapter 3 does a nice job of it.
23 "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," (Both Jew and Gentile ....) see vs 24-31 and into chapter 4 as the flow continues, using Abraham as an example [Who was imputed with Christ's righteousness].
See how the message is consistent if we understand that what is being emphasized is that man cannot justify himself? Why? Because there is none righteous, none that does good (Mark 10:18, Luke 18:19-John 15:5).
The context is justification and the ability to do good by righteous standards and justify ones self.
So why does Paul add "There is none who seeks after God." to His quote from the OT?
It would seem to be an odd thing to say if we take it at face value since Isaiah said this.
Isaiah 55:6 Seek the Lord while He may be found, Call upon Him while He is near. And other places Psalm 9:10, 22:46, 40:16, 1 Chronicles 28:9, Hosea 10:12, etc.
Paul adds "there is none who seeks after God" in Romans 3 for a reason when quoting Psalms, that reason is up for debate, but taking that statement literally and defining it on an island doesn't fit with the rest of Scripture. Since Psalms 14 and Isaiah 53 lays that definition on the Gentiles (Isaiah 53:4,6.). Paul was making clear that it's just as much a problem for Jews as it is for Gentiles.
Remember that even Peter said to be careful when examining Paul's letters and not to read into them any false ideas.
2 Peter 3:15-16 and consider that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation--as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written to you, as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures.
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