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JESUS SUFFERED THE WRATH OF GOD EQUIVALENT OF OUR ETERNAL HELL.

Dave G

Well-Known Member
Additionally, the Corporal Death Christ Endured in the Flesh included a Death in His Soul, Equal to a Spiritual and an Eternal Death, though not a Death of His Soul.
No it did not.
What's more, does anyone notice how Gill is stating contradictory things here?
That Christ endured a death of His soul, equal to a spiritual and eternal death, yet He did not?

Yet He did not.

If He did, He would be suffering in Hell along with the rest of those who are there, and be cast into the Lake of Fire along with them when death and Hell are cast into it ( Revelation 20:13-15 ).
 
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Dave G

Well-Known Member
“Now Christ Endured what was similar and answerable to these;
because for a while He Suffered 1.) the Punishment of Loss of His Father's Gracious Presence, when He said, "My God, My God, why hast Thou Forsaken Me!?"
Yes, just as David felt in the Psalms ( and is a prophecy pertaining to the Lord Jesus ) in the midst of his trials, Jesus expressed that same feeling in the midst of His own pain and suffering;
Instead, we are told these things:

" and lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." ( Matthew 3:17 ).

"
I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.
24 Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world.
25 O righteous Father, the world hath not known thee: but I have known thee, and these have known that thou hast sent me.
26 And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare [it]: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them
." ( John 17:23-26 )

" And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not left me alone; for I do always those things that please him." ( John :29 ).

Do we believe what these say?
I do.
So, according to God's word, Jesus never suffered the loss of God's presence, even though Gill ( and many men who came before and after him ) thinks that He did.


My friend, the "Church Fathers" were wrong about a great many things;
Why do we borrow from them, when we have the right to go to the very same "well" that they did and to read and believe His words for ourselves?
 
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Dave G

Well-Known Member
Despite the things that were allowed to happen at the hands of men by God the Father ( by His pre-determinate counsel and foreknowledge ), a careful reading of the Scriptures, my friend, should have made a man like Gill stop and think on the eternal relationship that He has with God the Son...

The Father never left the Son, even though the Lord Jesus, on the cross, felt that He had.
In no way was God the Father angry with Him, neither did ( or will ) Jesus ever suffer what those who are not saved will experience in the fires of Hell and of the Lake of Fire.

This is why I do not subscribe to not only the "substitutionary atonement" theory ( that the Lord Jesus "took our place" on the cross ), but the very idea that God was every angry with His Son, or that His wrath for our sins was ever laid upon Him there...
Because when I read the Scriptures, I make a "case study" of it, comparing what we're told about their relationship with declarations about what exactly happened on the cross, why it happened and for whom He suffered and died for.


In order to have truly and completely taken our place, I see that He would be in Hell right now...
Facing judgement from God the Father ( instead of Jesus Himself sitting on that throne, judging humanity ), who would then have Him cast into the Lake of Fire to suffer eternal torment with all those that He did not choose to save.

His wrath is eternal upon all those who hate God and refuse to repent of their sins, and it will be carried out, Alan.
That is what it would be to "take our place", and to have His wrath laid upon Him.


May God bless you as you think upon these things, sir.
 
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Alan Dale Gross

Active Member
Additionally, the Corporal Death Christ Endured in the Flesh included a Death in His Soul, Equal to a Spiritual and an Eternal Death, though not a Death of His Soul.
The Eternal Death Jesus sensed was when He, as a Human being, was separated from the Father, saying, "My God, My God, why hath Thou Forsaken Me", while still United to The Infinite Eternal Being of the Son, the Second Person in the Triune Godhead, in Matthew 27:46, "And about the ninth hour Jesus Cried with a Loud Voice, saying, Eli, Eli, Lama Sabachthani? that is to say, My God, My God, why hast thou Forsaken Me?"

Jesus' Soul did not Die, but He experienced a Separation from everything Good and Benevolent that Jesus had Enjoyed in Fellowship and Communion with the Father and the Spirit from all Eternity Past.

That is where it is said in Isaiah, "He hath Put Him to Grief", when Jesus not only didn't have the Complacency, Peace, and Joy of His Fellowship throughout Eternity with God the Father and the Holy Spirit, but since God could not Look upon Iniquity", "Thou Art of Purer Eyes than to Behold Evil, and canst not Look on Iniquity", from Habakkuk 1:13, Jesus then Suffered the Grief of the Infinite Suffering the children God Gave to Him , which means a pure sensation of an Eternal Hell.

"The Sorrows of Death Compassed Me, and the Pains of Hell gat hold upon Me: I found Trouble and Sorrow." Psalm 116:3.

And then in Psalm 13:1; the Psalmist also expresses Jesus' Deep Sense of Abandonment and Longing for God's Presence: "How Long, O LORD? Will You Forget Me Forever? How Long Will You Hide Your Face from Me?", and this mentions that the Sorrow He Endured was equivalent to an Eternity of Sorrow, as it also says there, "Will You Forget Me Forever?", as the answer to "How Long Will You Hide Your Face from Me?

So, by looking at verses like these, we get an even clearer understanding of what took place where the Bible says "when Thou shalt Make His Soul an Offering for sin" in Isaiah 53:10

"Yet it Pleased the LORD to Bruise Him; He hath Put Him to Grief: when Thou shalt Make His Soul an Offering for sin, He shall See His Seed, He shall Prolong His Days, and the Pleasure of the LORD shall Prosper in His Hand." Isaiah 53:10.

As John Gill said, Jesus Suffered the equivalent of an Eternal Death IN HIS SOUL.

While, Jesus, of course, did not experience an actual death OF HIS SOUL.

If you want to know how Jesus could say "It is Finished", when He was still Alive. He was still Alive Physically, but it was when Jesus' "Soul was Made an Offering for sin" that It was Finished, "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, He said, It is finished: and He Bowed His Head, and Gave Up the Ghost."


What's more, does anyone notice how Gill is stating contradictory things here?
That Christ endured a death of His soul, equal to a spiritual and eternal death, yet He did not?
I started to capitalize these prepositions but thought it was too tacky.

Here it is again,

As John Gill said, Jesus Suffered the equivalent of an Eternal Death IN HIS SOUL.

While, Jesus, of course, did not experience an actual death OF HIS SOUL.



If He did, He would be suffering in Hell along with the rest of those who are there, and be cast into the Lake of Fire along with them when death and Hell are cast into it ( Revelation 20:13-15 ).
No, you're right. Jesus never went to Hell.

“There are some things in them that are hard to understand” (2 Pet. 3:16).

The reference below is sometimes misinterpreted by some who fall into believing something like that.

"For Christ also Suffered Once for sins, the Righteous for the Unrighteous, that He might bring us to God, being put to Death in the Flesh but made Alive in the Spirit, in which He went and Proclaimed to the Spirits in Prison, because they formerly did not obey, when God’s Patience waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through water." (1 Pet. 3:18–20)

What, is Peter saying? He’s saying that Noah, in the course of building the ark, bore testimony to the coming Judgment of God. He was the “herald of Righteousness,” as Peter says in his second letter (2 Pet. 2:5).

Noah preached in the Power of the Holy Spirit, the Spirit whom Peter has earlier called “the Spirit of Christ” (1 Pet. 1:10). But the men and women of Noah’s generation, notwithstanding “God’s Patience” in delaying Judgment, spurned that proclamation. Because of their “former” disobedience, they are presently “in Prison.” That is, their souls, upon their deaths, were justly committed to Hell to be Punished for their sins.
 
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Alan Dale Gross

Active Member
Jesus never suffered the loss of God's presence
See post above JESUS SUFFERED THE WRATH OF GOD EQUIVALENT OF OUR ETERNAL HELL.

Jesus was the Scapegoat Who Went "into the wilderness", to "a land not inhabited".

"|And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness: 22And the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities unto a land not inhabited: and he shall let go the goat in the wilderness." Leviticus 16:21,22.

If you are concerned about whether God the Father ever stopped Loving Jesus, that is not the case. So, you can still talk about God Loving His Son, just not at the expence of denying the Atonement.

"The Three Divine Persons in the Godhead mutually Love each other; the Father Loves the Son and the Spirit, the Son Loves the Father and the Spirit, and the Spirit Loves the Father and the Son.

"That the Father Loves the Son, is said more than once, John 3:35, 5:20, and the Son is sometimes called the well beloved and dear Son of God, Matthew 3:17, 17:5, Colossians 1:13, He was from all Eternity as "One Brought Up with Him";

"and was Loved by Him before the Foundation of the World; and that with a Love of Complacency and Delight; as He must, since "He is the Brightness of His Glory, the Express Image of His Person", and is of the same Nature, and Possessed of all the same Perfections with Him, Proverbs 8:30,31, John 17:24, Hebrews 1:3, Colossians 2:9 yea, He Loved Jesus as His Servant, as the Mediator, in His State of Humiliation, and Obedience, and under all His Sufferings, and on Account of them;

"and even while Jesus Bore His Wrath as the sinner's Surety, He was the Object of God the Father's Love, as His Son, Isaiah 42:1, Matthew 3:17, John 10:17, and now Jesus is at His Right Hand, in Human Nature, He looks upon Jesus with Delight, and is Well Pleased with His Sacrifice, Satisfaction, and Righteousness." His By Grace--"John Gill: A Body of Doctrinal & Practical Divinity"-Doctrinal Book 1, Chapter 12


we have the right to go to the very same "well" that they did and to read and believe His words for ourselves
Right, we have every right. Wouldn't it be awesome if everyone took advantage of that Indescribable Blessing God Gave to Mankind on Earth, in The Word of God? I've got to get into it more!

Hope your dislike of some of this teaching isn't just to eliminate the Atonement altogether, instead of properly teaching the Limited Atonement. There is no such thing as "Jesus made it possible for anyone to be saved". According to Jesus and what He said about answering the question of who He Died for, He said, "As the Father Knoweth Me, even so know I the Father: and I Lay Down My Life for the sheep", John 10:15.
 

Alan Dale Gross

Active Member
You've been listening to the likes of Kenneth Copland and his crowd with this nonsense of Christ dying spiritually.
I have not said anything remotely associated with "Christ dying spiritually" by a million miles that even a stupid fool could be confused about to wind up looking like a retard.

So, your declaration of guessing wrong isn't exactly led by the Spirit of God.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
No.

What part of ON the cross do you deny?
It was finished on the cross before Christ physically died.
John 19:30, When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.(2)


Hear.
His death (1) for sin was completed before his physical death (2).
John 19:28, . . . Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, . . .
[Christ' death for sins was already finished.]

Christ had the power to forgive sin before He died based on His death on the Cross being a foregone conclusion in the mind of the Father.

The OT saints sins were also forgiven based on this conclusion.

In Lev. 4 the sinner was to place his hand on the head of sin offering and slay the animal. The priest would place the blood on the alter and the sin would be forgiven.

But the blood of the animal could not take away the sin only cover it, only the Blood of Christ could take away the sin with the sin placed on Him rather than the animal.

This took place on the Cross as the Law was satisfied, enabling man the opportunity to be saved.

Christ died for our sins, there was no other way, it was mandatory that He die for us to be saved.

Christ freely gave up His life, but God could no die spiritually, He had never sinned.
 

Charlie24

Well-Known Member
I have not said anything remotely associated with "Christ dying spiritually" by a million miles that even a stupid fool could be confused about to wind up looking like a retard.

So, your declaration of guessing wrong isn't exactly led by the Spirit of God.

Here's what you said in the OP.

"Additionally, the Corporal Death Christ Endured in the Flesh included a Death in His Soul, Equal to a Spiritual and an Eternal Death, though not a Death of His Soul."

Looks like a spiritual death to me, but not clearly said.
 
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