What is the difference between knowledge and foreknowledge?

[Van]

Knowledge refers to information acquired or formulated by someone, God or humans. Thus it is noun and describes information held in someone's mind. The Greek word is derived from the Greek verb "to know" and refers to the act of perceiving and understanding something or someone.

Foreknowledge refers to information acquired or formulated in the past that is being utilized in the present.

Let us look at a few usages of "knowledge" and "foreknowledge."

Luke 1:77 NKJV
To give knowledge of salvation to His people
By the remission of their sins,

Here the idea is NOT superficial knowledge about something, but rather an "intimate" knowledge obtained by a relationship. Our understanding of salvation is very different than the knowledge of an unsaved person who could only know about the circumstance.

1 Corinthians 8:1-2 NKJV
Now concerning things offered to idols: We know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffs up, but love edifies. And if anyone thinks that he knows anything, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know.

Here we see "knowledge" in a very different light. Here the idea is knowledge about something, rather than a commitment to something. Dare I say, knowledge akin to "dead faith" rather than akin to "live faith!"

Switching now to "foreknowledge."

In Acts 2:23 Christ is delivered to those who would nail Him to the cross "according to the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God. Clearly God is implementing His predetermined plan, formulated in the past, but now being put into action.

1 Peter 1:1-2 NET
From Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those temporarily residing abroad (in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, the province of Asia, and Bithynia) who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father by being set apart by the Spirit for obedience and for sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood. May grace and peace be yours in full measure!

Here we see God's redemption plan, formulated in the past, being implemented in the present. Those chosen have been chosen according to God's previously formulated plan, which was to set apart individuals spiritually into Christ, where they would undergo the washing of regeneration, referred to as the "sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood.

 

[Deacon]

What is the difference between knowledge and foreknowledge?​

4

 

[JesusFan]

Knowledge refers to information acquired or formulated by someone, God or humans. Thus it is noun and describes information held in someone's mind. The Greek word is derived from the Greek verb "to know" and refers to the act of perceiving and understanding something or someone.

Foreknowledge refers to information acquired or formulated in the past that is being utilized in the present.

Let us look at a few usages of "knowledge" and "foreknowledge."

Luke 1:77 NKJV
To give knowledge of salvation to His people
By the remission of their sins,

Here the idea is NOT superficial knowledge about something, but rather an "intimate" knowledge obtained by a relationship. Our understanding of salvation is very different than the knowledge of an unsaved person who could only know about the circumstance.

1 Corinthians 8:1-2 NKJV
Now concerning things offered to idols: We know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffs up, but love edifies. And if anyone thinks that he knows anything, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know.

Here we see "knowledge" in a very different light. Here the idea is knowledge about something, rather than a commitment to something. Dare I say, knowledge akin to "dead faith" rather than akin to "live faith!"

Switching now to "foreknowledge."

In Acts 2:23 Christ is delivered to those who would nail Him to the cross "according to the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God. Clearly God is implementing His predetermined plan, formulated in the past, but now being put into action.

1 Peter 1:1-2 NET
From Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those temporarily residing abroad (in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, the province of Asia, and Bithynia) who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father by being set apart by the Spirit for obedience and for sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood. May grace and peace be yours in full measure!

Here we see God's redemption plan, formulated in the past, being implemented in the present. Those chosen have been chosen according to God's previously formulated plan, which was to set apart individuals spiritually into Christ, where they would undergo the washing of regeneration, referred to as the "sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood.

God has always known all that can be knowable

 

[Van]

God has always known all that can be knowable

Yet another diversionary post to change the subject prevent discussion of the actual meaning of scripture.

 

[Van]

A well known foible in bible study is to read into scripture one of the meanings of the English word used to translated a Greek word or phrase.

If, rather than "foreknown" the translators had used known beforehand, all these fictional claims the word refers to foreseeing the future, the modern meaning of foreknowledge, could be placed on the dust bin of history.

 

[JesusFan]

Yet another diversionary post to change the subject prevent discussion of the actual meaning of scripture.

God foreknows all things due to him being omniscience, as in cannot learn anything new or novel to Him, as has always known all that can ever be known

 

[JD731]

Knowledge refers to information acquired or formulated by someone, God or humans. Thus it is noun and describes information held in someone's mind. The Greek word is derived from the Greek verb "to know" and refers to the act of perceiving and understanding something or someone.

Foreknowledge refers to information acquired or formulated in the past that is being utilized in the present.

Let us look at a few usages of "knowledge" and "foreknowledge."

Luke 1:77 NKJV
To give knowledge of salvation to His people
By the remission of their sins,

Here the idea is NOT superficial knowledge about something, but rather an "intimate" knowledge obtained by a relationship. Our understanding of salvation is very different than the knowledge of an unsaved person who could only know about the circumstance.

1 Corinthians 8:1-2 NKJV
Now concerning things offered to idols: We know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffs up, but love edifies. And if anyone thinks that he knows anything, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know.

Here we see "knowledge" in a very different light. Here the idea is knowledge about something, rather than a commitment to something. Dare I say, knowledge akin to "dead faith" rather than akin to "live faith!"

Switching now to "foreknowledge."

In Acts 2:23 Christ is delivered to those who would nail Him to the cross "according to the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God. Clearly God is implementing His predetermined plan, formulated in the past, but now being put into action.

1 Peter 1:1-2 NET
From Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those temporarily residing abroad (in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, the province of Asia, and Bithynia) who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father by being set apart by the Spirit for obedience and for sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood. May grace and peace be yours in full measure!

Here we see God's redemption plan, formulated in the past, being implemented in the present. Those chosen have been chosen according to God's previously formulated plan, which was to set apart individuals spiritually into Christ, where they would undergo the washing of regeneration, referred to as the "sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood.

As far as I can tell, Hosea was a contemporary of Isaiah, both being prophets under the same kings and at the same times, but Isaiah being a prophet of Judah and Jerusalem and Hosea a prophet to Ephraim. The time frame when Hosea began to preach seems to be about 30 years before their dispersion under the Assyrians in 722 BC. From this point going forward all the prophecies concerning the nation would be to and through Judah, and Ephraim, God says, are not my people. He says here, and Paul in Romans 9 reiterates for the purpose of remembrance to the Jews, that he had both declared this to them, counting them as gentiles during this time of broken family relationships, but also quoting Hosea that God has also promised that whomsoever he had declared that he would not have mercy he would one day have mercy and these people would be called the sons of the living God. This after the growth in huge numbers of these people in a strange land.

So we all know that in order to be a son of anyone it requires a birth. And is it strange to anyone that Peter opens up his first epistle speaking of a new birth to these very people while he refers to them as strangers. In chapter two he actually says to them, (as new born babes desire the sincere milk of the word that you may grow thereby." Is it strange that God has just now in this time in history suddenly taken an interest in the salvation of these people at the very time after Jesus Christ has been crucified by the Jews and has risen from the grave with healing in his wings?

Therefore, if for no other reason than this I determine that God intends the reader of his testimony to believe that foreknowledge is in the context of previously knowing Israel, both nations, and having a plan to bring them back together as one people with a family relationship with God. That is the promise in the prophets and the Psalms and the writings of Israel. The word is used in the context exclusively of this family.

If we could just understand that God is working out his redemptive purposes through these people it would be so much easier to have sound doctrine. Thank God he has made all the families of the earth to be partakers of their spiritual blessings and has shown great mercy and kindness to us in this age of grace and mercy and peace. Praise his dear name for that.

Hosea 1:1The word of the Lord that came unto Hosea, the son of Beeri, in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah, and in the days of Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel.
2 The beginning of the word of the Lord by Hosea. And the Lord said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord.
3 So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim; which conceived, and bare him a son.
4 And the Lord said unto him, Call his name Jezreel; for yet a little while, and I will avenge the blood of Jezreel upon the house of Jehu, and will cause to cease the kingdom of the house of Israel.
5 And it shall come to pass at that day, that I will break the bow of Israel, in the valley of Jezreel.
6 And she conceived again, and bare a daughter. And God said unto him, Call her name Loruhamah: for I will no more have mercy upon the house of Israel; but I will utterly take them away.
7 But I will have mercy upon the house of Judah, and will save them by the Lord their God, and will not save them by bow, nor by sword, nor by battle, by horses, nor by horsemen.
8 Now when she had weaned Loruhamah, she conceived, and bare a son.
9 Then said God, Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your God.
10 Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God.
11 Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together, and appoint themselves one head, and they shall come up out of the land: for great shall be the day of Jezreel.

Just so you know. Most often the word "Lord" in passages like this that is referring to Jehovah will be spelled LORD instead of Lord. This is important and most often I correct this error by Bible Gateway. I do not have time to day so be warned. The spelling of his name is important.

For instance the "word of the LORD" in chapter 2 is the manner in which Jehovah has identified Jesus Christ in the OT. He is Adonay Jehovah, the Lord GOD.

 

[Van]

God foreknows all things due to him being omniscience, as in cannot learn anything new or novel to Him, as has always known all that can ever be known

Yet another diversionary post, claiming to utilize information acquired or formulated in the past and being used in the present is beyond comprehension.

No verse says or suggests God knows everything imaginable, that is an unstudied view. Inherent Omniscience is the modern doctrine.

 

[Van]

SNIP
Therefore, if for no other reason than this I determine that God intends the reader of his testimony to believe that foreknowledge is in the context of previously knowing Israel, both nations, and having a plan to bring them back together as one people with a family relationship with God. That is the promise in the prophets and the Psalms and the writings of Israel. The word is used in the context exclusively of this family.

If we could just understand that God is working out his redemptive purposes through these people it would be so much easier to have sound doctrine. Thank God he has made all the families of the earth to be partakers of their spiritual blessings and has shown great mercy and kindness to us in this age of grace and mercy and peace. Praise his dear name for that.

SNIP

For instance the "word of the LORD" in chapter 2 is the manner in which Jehovah has identified Jesus Christ in the OT. He is Adonay Jehovah, the Lord GOD.

You can believe in the racist views of the past, with God promising to a particular blood line, rather than to believers of the same faith as Abraham, but I believe Galatians 3.

If we could just understand God's promise is to those whose faith He credits as righteousness, it would be so much easier to arrive at sound doctrine.

Of course I know when I see LORD in all CAPs in my NASB, the Hebrew text has the tetragramation, YHWH., thought to refer to the name of our Triune God as Yahweh, or the outdated mistaken understanding of Jehovah.

 

[JD731]

You can believe in the racist views of the past, with God promising to a particular blood line, rather than to believers of the same faith as Abraham, but I believe Galatians 3.

If we could just understand God's promise is to those whose faith He credits as righteousness, it would be so much easier to arrive at sound doctrine.

Of course I know when I see LORD in all CAPs in my NASB, the Hebrew text has the tetragramation, YHWH., thought to refer to the name of our Triune God as Yahweh, or the outdated mistaken understanding of Jehovah.

Well, Van, most Christians, I think, do not doubt the Abrahamic Covenant that establishes Israel as the people of God because they do not like or trust Jews, it is because their teachers generally teach systematic theologies that are false because they do not believe the words of the scriptures. This is a problem.
When Jesus Christ our Lord said to the Samaritan woman in John 4, "salvation is of the Jews," he was not teaching false doctrine as some would have us believe. All the problems with false doctrine can be solved by believing the words of scriptures and honoring context. That is all it would take.

Rom 15:15 Nevertheless, brethren, I have written the more boldly unto you in some sort, as putting you in mind, because of the grace that is given to me of God,
16 That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.
17 I have therefore whereof I may glory through Jesus Christ in those things which pertain to God.
18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,
19 Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ.

25 But now I go unto Jerusalem to minister unto the saints.
26 For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem.
27 It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things.

Those word are true. Absolutely true. God has included gentiles in his redemptive purposes because of his promise to Abraham that he would.

Speaking of Ga 3 and the Abrahamic Covenant. In that chapter Paul says he is keeping it. You need to look closely at that chapter.

I am not sure if you reject the point I made about Hosea.

 

[Van]

Well, Van, most Christians, I think, do not doubt the Abrahamic Covenant that establishes Israel as the people of God because they do not like or trust Jews, it is because their teachers generally teach systematic theologies that are false because they do not believe the words of the scriptures. This is a problem.
When Jesus Christ our Lord said to the Samaritan woman in John 4, "salvation is of the Jews," he was not teaching false doctrine as some would have us believe. All the problems with false doctrine can be solved by believing the words of scriptures and honoring context. That is all it would take.

Rom 15:15 Nevertheless, brethren, I have written the more boldly unto you in some sort, as putting you in mind, because of the grace that is given to me of God,
16 That I should be the minister of Jesus Christ to the Gentiles, ministering the gospel of God, that the offering up of the Gentiles might be acceptable, being sanctified by the Holy Ghost.
17 I have therefore whereof I may glory through Jesus Christ in those things which pertain to God.
18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed,
19 Through mighty signs and wonders, by the power of the Spirit of God; so that from Jerusalem, and round about unto Illyricum, I have fully preached the gospel of Christ.

25 But now I go unto Jerusalem to minister unto the saints.
26 For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem.
27 It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things.

Those word are true. Absolutely true. God has included gentiles in his redemptive purposes because of his promise to Abraham that he would.

Speaking of Ga 3 and the Abrahamic Covenant. In that chapter Paul says he is keeping it. You need to look closely at that chapter.

I am not sure if you reject the point I made about Hosea.

Sir the issue is not what "most Christians do not doubt" but what scripture teaches.

Salvation is "of" the Jews. The "of" translates the Greek preposition "ek" and means "from" as in out from or originating from. Thus Salvation was brought to Humanity in the person of Jesus, from a line of mostly believing Jews, as given in the early parts of some gospels. But let us not forget Ruth or Rehab. Matthew 1:5.

I believe you know every born anew Gentile is a child of the promise, but that means the Jewish bloodline plays no part of the New Covenant in His Blood.

 

[JD731]

Sir the issue is not what "most Christians do not doubt" but what scripture teaches.

Salvation is "of" the Jews. The "of" translates the Greek preposition "ek" and means "from" as in out from or originating from. Thus Salvation was brought to Humanity in the person of Jesus, from a line of mostly believing Jews, as given in the early parts of some gospels. But let us not forget Ruth or Rehab. Matthew 1:5.

I believe you know every born anew Gentile is a child of the promise, but that means the Jewish bloodline plays no part of the New Covenant in His Blood.

You and I surely agree that the issue is what the scriptures teach us. It is the reason I brought up the Samaritan woman in John 4. And when you say that every born anew gentile is a child of promise I would be quick to say I agree if we are both speaking of the promise of the Abrahamic covenant where God promised him in this clause, "and in thy seed shall all the families of the earth be blessed." Of course this is the twelfth and last clause in the Abrahamic Covenant and all the other previous eleven clauses are just as true as this one. It might help to look a little closer at the Abrahamic Covenant, keeping in mind that it begins in Ge 12 of all chapters, the number 12 being his number for his perfect government. God does not miss an opportunity to synchronize his biblical doctrines with consistency. Nothing with God is by chance.

Without going into detail in Ga 3 at this time I will show you briefly the contrast between the covenant of law and the Abrahamic covenant.

16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.

17 And this I say, that the (Mosaic) covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after (The giving of the Abrahamic Covenant), cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

18 For if the inheritance be of the law, it is no more of promise: but God gave it to Abraham by promise (we learn in this chapter that the promise is the blessing of the Spirit through the Seed, which is called often the gift of God, hence the grace of God).


14 That the blessing of Abraham might come on the Gentiles through Jesus Christ; that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith.

If you teach you have the Spirit and favor of God before Jesus Christ came and died and rose again then you are teaching falsely. The gentiles, as opposed to the Jews was given the Spirit in ACTS 10 and this is just a historical fact. The first Jews to receive the promise of the Spirit was in John 20 when Jesus personally breathed on the 10 apostles and to the nation in Acts 2 at Pentecost. The Spirit is also called the righteousness of Christ. So the entrance of the Spirit into our bodies makes us righteous and he was poured out of the body of Christ on the cross.

 

[Van]

The topic of this thread is the difference between Knowledge and Foreknowledge as used in scripture. Foreseeing the future is never indicated.

Acts 2:23 NASB
this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.

Here is a more interpretive translation:

This Jesus, delivered out of the predetermined plan, known beforehand by God and being carried out now, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put to death.

 

[Van]

1 Peter 1:1-2 NET
From Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to those temporarily residing abroad (in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, the province of Asia, and Bithynia) who are chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father by being set apart by the Spirit for obedience and for sprinkling with Jesus Christ's blood. May grace and peace be yours in full measure!

Here is a more interpretive translation:

From Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ to those temporarily residing abroad (...) who were chosen according to the plan formulated beforehand but implemented in the present by God the Father, which as to set apart, by the Spirit, those whose faith He credited as righteousness, for obedience and the forgiveness of wrongdoings by the washing of regeneration.