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Imputed Righteousness is False Doctrine

Dave G

Well-Known Member
Time and again, differing posters make or seem to make this claim, we, those saved, became righteous because God imputed or declared or credited as as righteous.

I believe this view is absolutely bogus.

Let us consider this view from scripture.
I'm not sure how you missed this in your studies, Van, but I see the Scripture saying differently:

" But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 [saying], Blessed [are] they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8 Blessed [is] the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin."
( Romans 4:5-8 ).

" Yea doubtless, and I count all things [but] loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them [but] dung, that I may win Christ,
9 and be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith: "
( Philippians 3:8-9 )

" knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, [is] therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
18 For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor.
19 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me. "
( Galatians 2:16-20 ).

According to the above, whose faith does the believer have?
I see that it is the faith of Jesus Christ.
What are they justified by?
I see that it is by the faith of Jesus Christ.


Where does that righteousness come from?
It is "of" ( by or from ) God by faith.
 
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Dave G

Well-Known Member
What do you see when you read these things?
Apparently something markedly different than I do.

Van, God's word tells us not only where the believer's faith comes from, but whose righteousness they actually possess...
Jesus Christ's, who was made righteousness to us:

" But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:" ( 1 Corinthians 1:30 ).

To emphasize this further:

" And this I pray, that your love may abound yet more and more in knowledge and in all judgment;
10 that ye may approve things that are excellent; that ye may be sincere and without offence till the day of Christ;
11 being filled with the fruits of righteousness, which are by Jesus Christ, unto the glory and praise of God."
( Philippians 1:9-11 ).

I see here that the fruits of true righteousness are by Jesus Christ, unto the glory and praise of God and are imputed to all of His people.

My friend, please go back and read where faith comes from, who has it, and why they have it.
The Scriptures tell us, in many places, the answers to those questions.


May God bless you sir.
 
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MrW

Well-Known Member
Time and again, differing posters make or seem to make this claim, we, those saved, became righteous because God imputed or declared or credited as as righteous.

I believe this view is absolutely bogus.

Let us consider this view from scripture.

Romans 4:6 NASB
just as David also speaks of the blessing of the person to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:

Here many apparently believe this verse say God causes a person to be righteous by crediting or imputing or declaring the person righteous.
But contextually, since the previous verse says God credits a person's faith as righteous, the same idea is probably in view. In other words blessings upon the person whose faith God credits as righteousness.

Philippians 3:9 says that if we are found spiritually "in Him," but we, not having a righteousness of our own derived from the Law, but having a righteousness that is through Jesus Christ, the righteousness from God on the basis of credited faith. Thus we are made righteous, not by imputation or being credited as being righteous, but by the washing of regeneration, the circumcision of Christ.

Summary, If God decides to credit our faith as righteousness to us, that does not make us righteous, but based on crediting our faith as righteousness, God then transfers us spiritually into Christ where we undergo the washing of regeneration which makes us righteous.

Last point, we become the righteousness of God only when we are "in Him."

No opposing argument will be made that we have the righteousness of God before we are spiritually transferred into Christ. NONE, ZIP NADA
Time and again, differing posters make or seem to make this claim, we, those saved, became righteous because God imputed or declared or credited as as righteous.

I believe this view is absolutely bogus.

Let us consider this view from scripture.

Romans 4:6 NASB
just as David also speaks of the blessing of the person to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:

Here many apparently believe this verse say God causes a person to be righteous by crediting or imputing or declaring the person righteous.
But contextually, since the previous verse says God credits a person's faith as righteous, the same idea is probably in view. In other words blessings upon the person whose faith God credits as righteousness.

Philippians 3:9 says that if we are found spiritually "in Him," but we, not having a righteousness of our own derived from the Law, but having a righteousness that is through Jesus Christ, the righteousness from God on the basis of credited faith. Thus we are made righteous, not by imputation or being credited as being righteous, but by the washing of regeneration, the circumcision of Christ.

Summary, If God decides to credit our faith as righteousness to us, that does not make us righteous, but based on crediting our faith as righteousness, God then transfers us spiritually into Christ where we undergo the washing of regeneration which makes us righteous.

Last point, we become the righteousness of God only when we are "in Him."

No opposing argument will be made that we have the righteousness of God before we are spiritually transferred into Christ. NONE, ZIP NADA


Imputed Righteousness is False Doctrine?​

And yet it is taught clearly in Scripture.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Yes, they were. Everyone who is saved is imputed with the righteousness of Christ.

David lived before the cross.

Psalm 32:2 Blessed is the man unto whom the LORD imputeth not iniquity.

Lot lived before the cross.

2 Peter 2:8 (For that righteous man dwelling among them, in seeing and hearing, vexed his righteous soul from day to day with their unlawful deeds).



Yes, they did. God's elect before the cross were not thrown into some holding cell and kept there for thousands of years. They went to be with Christ immediately, just as God's elect after the cross.

Abraham lived before the Christ.

John 8:56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: by Abraham's bosom is meant heaven, a phrase well known to the Jews, by which they commonly expressed the happiness of the future state: of Abraham's happy state they had no doubt; and when they spake of the happiness of another's, they sometimes signified it by going to Abraham.

- excerpt from John Gill's commentary on Luke 16:22
Did you see why Christ had to suffer and die?

Did you see the man-made malarkey of "time travel theology?"
'
Did you see why the OT Saints had to wait in Abraham's bosom to be made perfect until AFTER Christ died?
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter

Imputed Righteousness is False Doctrine?​

And yet it is taught clearly in Scripture.
Yet another mindless post, claiming what is proven to be false doctrine by scripture is actually taught. But note no actual reference.

I have shown none of the OT saints were made the righteousness of God, until after Christ died. Thus they were not imputed with the Righteousness of God. Their sins were temporarily covered, robed in righteousness, but not removed, because that action required the suffering and death of Christ.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I'm not sure how you missed this in your studies, Van, but I see the Scripture saying differently:

" But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 [saying], Blessed [are] they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8 Blessed [is] the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin."
( Romans 4:5-8 ).

" Yea doubtless, and I count all things [but] loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them [but] dung, that I may win Christ,
9 and be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith: "
( Philippians 3:8-9 )

" knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, [is] therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
18 For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor.
19 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me. "
( Galatians 2:16-20 ).

According to the above, whose faith does the believer have?
I see that it is the faith of Jesus Christ.
What are they justified by?
I see that it is by the faith of Jesus Christ.


Where does that righteousness come from?
It is "of" ( by or from ) God by faith.
None of those verses support the fiction.
Counting or crediting a person's FAITH as righteousness does bestow the righteousness of God to him or her.
Not counting a person's sin's against them did not make the OT saints PERFECT.

Next you cite a poor translation of Philippians 3:9, "...but that which is through the faithfulness of Christ, the righteousness which has its origin from God on the basis of credited faith."

Next you cite a poor translation of Galatians 2:16, "yet we know that no one is justified by the works of the law but by the faithfulness of Jesus Christ. And we have come to believe in Christ Jesus, so that we may be justified by the faithfulness of Christ and not by the works of the law, because by the works of the law no one will be justified.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Your ignorance of scripture is exposed every time you post.

Peace to you
Yet another against the person fallacy post. This is all they have, folks, fallacy and fiction. Of course I do not know, but it appears none of the posting Calvinists even know how to study to show themselves approved.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Unbelievable isnt it?
Sadly, no Calvinist believes scripture, Calvinism has made the truth of scripture unbelievable to their closed minds.

Not one of them has even acknowledged we are made the righteousness of God in Him. Or that Christ had to suffer and die in order to remove our sin burden, what God held against us, nailing it to the cross so to speak. Not one.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The sins of God's elect had to to be expiated; therefore, the sins of God's elect were imputed to Christ and He paid their sin debt. And He paid the sin debt of the elect even if they had not been born yet nor personally sinned yet. Every time one of God's elect sins today, Christ does not return to earth and die again to paid their sin debt.

God is not bound by time. We fallen human beings are time bound; therefore, we see things as past, present, and future. For Jehovah, everything that will ever take place in our time bound existence has always been a present reality going back into eternity - Jehovah is Eternal.
Let us number the false claims embedded in this post!

1) Which verse says our sins were imputed to Christ? None! How does scripture say our sins are removed. Does the washing of regeneration, or the circumcision of Christ or nailing to the cross, or carried away in His body ring a bell?

2) Did Christ pay the specific sin debt for specific individuals, or did He die as a ransom for all? He became the means of reconciliation for the whole of humanity. Anyone transferred into Him will have all of their sins, past, present, and future removed. He died once for "all" not once for some.

3) Which verse says Christ did not die for all, but only for the elect. Recall 2 Peter 2:1 which says Christ bought those heading for swift destruction.

4) God is not bound by time, but He can work within time if He chooses, thus the OT saints had to wait to be made perfect.

5) What verse teaches "time travel theology?" None, it is a fiction to nullify scripture after scripture.
 

KenH

Well-Known Member
Which verse says our sins were imputed to Christ?

This one:

2 Corinthians 5:21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.

Did Christ pay the specific sin debt for specific individuals

Yes. Christ paid the specific sin for His sheep only, not the goats. Sheep don't evolve into goats; goats don't evolve into sheep.

John 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.

Which verse says Christ did not die for all, but only for the elect.

This one:

John 10:15 As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep.

God is not bound by time, but He can work within time if He chooses, thus the OT saints had to wait to be made perfect.

Of course God works within time. God created EVERYTHING, including time.

No, the saints before the cross didn't have to wait in some holding cell for thousands of years for anything in the way of being justified by the righteousness of Christ. Justification is an immanent act of God, an action within Himself, and not based on time.

What verse teaches "time travel theology?"

None. God is eternal and knows everything and is the cause of all things throughout all eternity, inclusive of the limited time element in which humans live. Not an atom has ever moved or will ever move in all of God's creation except at His direction and for His purposes and for His glory.

It is a false teaching that some proclaim in which they say that God looked down some "telescope of time" and then reacted to His creation and made decisions based on what He saw. God is not a gypsy gazing at a crystal ball, which is the essence what such people teach, people who rail against their almighty sovereign Creator.
 

KenH

Well-Known Member
Did you see why Christ had to suffer and die?

Christ suffered and died for God's elect because God's elect are born as children of Adam, just as those God reprobated are, and were corrupted by Adam's sin in the Garden of Eden.

Did you see the man-made malarkey of "time travel theology?"

God is eternal and knows everything and is the cause of all things throughout all eternity, inclusive of the limited time element in which humans live. Not an atom has ever moved or will ever move in all of God's creation except at His direction and for His purposes and for His glory.

It is a false teaching that some proclaim in which they say that God looked down some "telescope of time" and then reacted to His creation and made decisions based on what He saw. God is not a gypsy gazing at a crystal ball, which is the essence what such people teach, people who rail against their almighty sovereign Creator.

Did you see why the OT Saints had to wait in Abraham's bosom to be made perfect until AFTER Christ died?

The saints before the cross didn't have to wait in some holding cell for thousands of years for anything in the way of being justified by the righteousness of Christ. Justification is an immanent act of God, an action within Himself, and not based on time.
 

Dave G

Well-Known Member
Not one of them has even acknowledged we are made the righteousness of God in Him.
I'm not a "Calvinist" Van, I'm a Christian.

Past that, I do indeed acknowledge that Christ was made sin for us that we might become ( come to be ) the righteousness of God...
And we do so "in Christ" ( 2 Corinthians 5:21 ), and only "in Christ".

As for the "poor translation" that you allege, I've quoted from the time-tested and time-honored AV ( commonly called the "KJV" ).
While I'm sorry that it seems as if you personally feel that it is a poor translation, it is the one that my English-speaking forefathers in the faith used for much of the past 400 years; and it is the one that I'm firmly convinced is far superior in both accuracy and in its choice of source texts to most that are available today.


That said, I wish you well as always;
And again, may God bless you sir.
 
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