Do you think this Greek word, 'ᾅδῃ," should ever have been translated hell? Would it not have been better to have left it as Hades?Thank you. That's a kind thing to say.
I understand.
Yes, so between the death of Christ and His bodily resurrection, His soul was in Hades, the "place of the dead." That does not mean it was in Hell, suffering like the rich man. The contexts of the two usages of the word is different.
Yes, I believe that to be correct.
BTW I know no Greek. Wasn't a wiz in English. Never the less.
Does the language of and the use of the dative of V 23 imply at the resurrection this is taking place rather than upon entering Hades?