Dispensationalism, O.P.
WHAT IS A “DISPENSATION”?
And first, as regards the meaning of the word
'dispensation' itself, it is easily to be seen, that
the Biblical meaning thereof is radically different from that assigned to it by the “Scofield Bible,” where it is stated that:–
"LET us at this point inquire
what, if any, support the Bible lends to the basic idea of Modern
dispensationalism, namely, that God has divided all time (past and future) into seven distinct and clearly distinguishable
“dispensations;” and that in each of those
“dispensations” He deals with mankind upon 'a special plan' and upon 'peculiar principles that differ from those of all the others'.
"But in our English Version of the Scriptures the word
“dispensation” is not in a single instance used to designate
'a period of time', whatsoever.
"Paul says,
“A dispensation of the Gospel is committed to me” (I Cor. 9:17); that is to say,
the Gospel had been entrusted to him to be dispensed by him.
"And the word has a similar
intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning in other passages, all its occurrences being in the writings of the apostle Paul. Thus in
Ephesians 1:10 the word '
dispensation' is a reference to
“the dispensation of the fulness of the times”; and
the Apostle is there speaking of that which God had Purposed to administer or dispense in these Last Days. (
“The fulness of the time,” according to
Galatians 4:4, is the Era when
“God sent forth His Son.”).
"Again in
Ephesians 3:2 Paul speaks of
“the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward”; the meaning being that
the ministry given him was to dispense the grace of God to the Gentiles.
And lastly, in
Colossians 1:25 he refers to
“the dispensation of God,” that had been given him,
“to fulfil the word of God”; the reference being to
that which God had made him responsible to administer or
dispense, in fulfilment of the word of God concerning His previously concealed Purpose as to the salvation of the Gentiles.
"These are all the occurrences of the word
"dispensation",
in the New Testament.
"In the English Version of the Bible, therefore, the word
“dispensation” always means administration, or stewardship.
"Our English word
“economy” comes directly from the Greek word rendered “dispensation” in the four passages above referred to.
"It is to be deplored that a Biblical word of definite intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning should have been chosen for the purpose of this New System of Doctrine, and a radically different intent, definition, import, and connotation conveying its meaning assigned to it."
preteristarchives.org
Satan apparently leaves some extremely strategic vulnerable loopholes and telling clues in his supernaturally evil schemes that God allows to be left in place for the whole world to see, if you look for them and believe the Bible, instead of him.
Like the Holly Rollers who believe they are Sanctified 'holy', when the Bible says, 'wholly'.
Or the premillennial, postmillennial, or premillennial dispensationalists who think an Earthly Reign of Jesus is contained within the verse in Revelation 20:4, which speaks of 'a thousand years'.
As far as End Times schemes go, God eliminated three of them right there in the one verse they use for their namesakes.
Praise the One and Only Lord God of the Holy Bible.
That's because they have gradually been drawn away from the total cockiness of it assigning new meanings to the teachings of the Bible, including its very name, to wherever extent God has Blessed someone to
dispense with it, as some sort of NEW Condescending Conjectural Deranged System of Self-Contridictions.
I understand what the word
“dispensation” always means when it is used in the Bible.
Try to understand it, too.
Was it any part of the work of Christ
to revive and reconstitute the Jewish nation?
...to re-establish that people in the land that was once theirs?
...to revive their system of worship, etc.?
Did He come to reinstate the bondwoman
and her son in the family of Abraham?
...and to make the son of the bondwoman
to be heir with the son of the free woman?
Did He come to raise up again, and to make permanent,
that
“middle wall of partition” between Jew and Gentile,
...or to take it away entirely and forever?
Did He come to restore the
“shadows” of the old covenant,
...or to abolish them?