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No. Probably because we see that Jesus gave it as a pattern for prayer, rather than a form of words to be repeated parrot-fashion. I remember, having been brought up to "go to church", i.e. the Anglican parish church, that the Lord's Prayer was said twice during every service, once with the words, "For Thine is the kingdom, the power and the glory, forever and ever," and once without.Does your church recited the Lords prayer at each worship service?
Why or why not?
Does your church recited the Lords prayer at each worship service?
Why or why not?
Praying to God for one's daily bread, which I take to mean daily needs, is surely not only for the remnant of Israel."Daily bread" sounds like what the faithful remnant of Israel who enter the earthly kingdom would expect.
Forgiveness is something every sinner needs, not only Israelite sinners.The forgiveness of trespasses sounds like what Israel expected.
The disciples were Jewish, but asking the Lord to teach them to pray was not specifically Jewish. Why cannot I, a Gentile Christian, seek God's help in prayer?1Jn 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
The disciples prayer (Lord, teach us to pray) sounds like it is consistent with the gospel of the kingdom for the nation of Israel.
I don't know what "a mid acts dispensational view" is (I'm not a dispensationalist), but I see no reason at all why all Christians cannot use the pattern prayer.Paul told the Thessalonians that they should not eat if they do not work. Paul told the Ephesians that they were sealed by the Holy Spirit Paul told to Colossians they had been translated into the kingdom. (since it is past tense, one presumes heavenly kingdom).
If one takes a mid acts dispensational view, it would seem that what is called the Lord's prayer was not intended for those who would be placed into the body of Christ.
Certainly. God doesn't have a special way of dealing with Christians who are Israelites by birth, requiring them, but not Christians who are Gentiles, to confess their sins.The disciples were Jewish, but asking the Lord to teach them to pray was not specifically Jewish. Why cannot I, a Gentile Christian, seek God's help in prayer?
Are gentile Christians today required to continually ask for forgiveness or confess their sins for forgiveness?
We do not (this was Jesus teaching His Disciples how to pray). But the principles are important and influence how we pray.Does your church recited the Lords prayer at each worship service?
Why or why not?
1 John is written to believers who are in the body of Christ.Certainly. God doesn't have a special way of dealing with Christians who are Israelites by birth, requiring them, but not Christians who are Gentiles, to confess their sins.
Those of Israel who are saved by the grace gospel today are indeed part of the body of Christ. My question was that those to whom 1 John was written and Jesus taught to pray were required to obtain forgiveness through confession. This is not a requirement of those in the body of Christ.
You are deflecting from the examination of 1 John.Follow the use of “we” throughout the epistle.
It is important to consider who is included when the word "we" is used. If we include all believers, we need to ask ourselves why "we" don't move mountains. have every prayer answered by God, and sell everything we have and hold all things in common.
Again you are deflecting from the examination of 1 John, where we are told that if we confess our sins, God will forgive them.Mat_21:22 And all things, whatsoever ye shall ask in prayer, believing, ye shall receive.
Are we included in "ye"?
This does not sound like Jesus is saying we could be told "no".