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The Soul Of God Part 2

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
The Soul Of God Part 2

A Question Worth Asking


Does God have a soul?

In one sense, Scripture does apply soul-language to God. His nephesh loves, hates, delights, grieves, desires, and wills.

Yet Scripture is equally clear that God is Spirit.

Therefore, while the language of soul reveals genuine aspects of God’s inner life, the language of communion consistently directs us elsewhere.

God is Spirit. Man possesses both soul and spirit.

The soul makes man conscious of himself and the world around him.

The spirit makes man conscious of God.

The soul relates man to creation.

The spirit relates man to the Creator.

Therefore, when Scripture speaks of worship, communion, witness, discernment, union with Christ, and the life of God, it consistently directs our attention not to the soul, but to the spirit.

The Incarnation and the Divine Nature

A thoughtful objection has been raised at this point.

Christ is God.

Christ possessed a true human soul.

Does it therefore follow that the divine nature itself possesses a soul?


The question deserves careful consideration.

Orthodox Christianity has always maintained that Christ possessed a complete human nature. He did not merely appear to be human. He possessed a human body, human emotions, human experiences, and a human soul.

“My soul is exceeding sorrowful, even unto death...” (Matt. 26:38)

Yet we must distinguish between what belongs to Christ’s assumed humanity and what belongs to the divine nature itself.

The incarnation did not transform deity into humanity. Rather, the eternal Word took humanity unto Himself.

This distinction is illustrated by the body.

Christ possesses a human body.

Yet no Christian concludes from this that the divine nature itself possesses flesh, bones, arms, legs, or physical limitations.

Christ having a body does not prove that deity possesses a body.


The body belongs to the humanity assumed in the incarnation.

Likewise, Christ possessing a human soul does not automatically establish that the divine nature itself possesses a soul in the same sense that man does.

The soul belongs to His true humanity just as His body belongs to His true humanity.

The question therefore remains open:

Does the divine nature possess a soul, or does Scripture use the language of God’s soul in some other sense?

The incarnation by itself does not settle the matter.

The question of God’s soul existed before Bethlehem and therefore cannot be resolved solely by appealing to the humanity assumed in the incarnation.

If the possession of a human body by Christ does not require a bodily divine nature, then the possession of a human soul by Christ does not necessarily require a soul-bearing divine nature.

The distinction between the Person of Christ and the natures united in that Person must be carefully maintained.

A Further Consideration

When Scripture speaks of God’s soul, many immediately classify the language as anthropomorphic. An anthropomorphism is the attribution of human characteristics to God in order to communicate divine realities. For example, Scripture speaks of God’s hand, arm, eyes, and face, not because the divine nature literally possesses flesh, bones, arms, or eyes, but because such language communicates aspects of His power, knowledge, presence, and activity.

That is certainly possible.

Yet another possibility deserves consideration.

Because man was created in the image of God, the language may be analogical rather than merely anthropomorphic. In that case, Scripture is not projecting human qualities onto God. Rather, human qualities reflect, however imperfectly, realities that exist first and perfectly in God.

The human soul may therefore be viewed as the created container through which attributes such as love, delight, purpose, affection, intention, and will are reflected in the creature. God does not possess these qualities because man possesses them. Rather, man possesses them because they exist first and perfectly in God.

Man was created in the image of God.

Therefore man’s capacities for love, delight, grief, purpose, intention, and holy affection do not originate in man and then become projected onto God.

Rather, they originate in God and are reflected in man.

The copy should not be used to define the original.

The image does not create the archetype.

The creature reflects the Creator.

If this is so, then references to God’s soul need not suggest that God possesses a human soul.

Nor need they be dismissed as mere figures without corresponding reality.

Instead, they may signify that those qualities associated with personality, delight, purpose, affection, and intention exist first and perfectly in God, while man’s soul reflects them imperfectly as part of the divine image.

In that sense God’s soul would not be an imitation of man’s soul.

Rather, man’s soul would be a finite reflection of realities that exist eternally in God.

Non anima ad animam, sed spiritus ad spiritum - Not soul to soul, but spirit to spirit.

~Tony

© A.K. Pritchard 2026 - Free to use with proper attribution.
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Synonymous parallelism is the term used describing how in Hebrew poetry, the second line restates the first line using different words.
When translating a passage, recognizing the practice helps us to define a word.

In Jeremiah 14:19 we find Jeremiah speaking to the LORD;

Hast thou utterly rejected Judah?
hath thy nafshi lothed Zion?
Why hast thou smitten us, and there is no healing for us? We looked for peace, and there is no good; And for the time of healing, and behold trouble.

soul [AV, D-R, ESV, Geneva, Wycliffe, LEB, NKJV, LXX, RSV, JPS 1917, YLT]
heart [NRSV, NRSVue]

Very many versions simply do not translate the word, simply conveying the idea that there has been a "complete" lothing, the fullness of the LORD is against Zion.

~~~~~~~~

Jeremiah 15:1
Then said the LORD unto me, Though Moses and Samuel stood before me, yet my nafshi could not be toward this people: cast them out of my sight, and let them go forth.

mind [AV, ASV, ERV, NKJV, JPS 1917]
heart [ESV, Coverdale, LEB, NAB, NASB, NIV, NRSV, RSV]
soul [Darby, D-R, Wycliffe, LSB, LXX, ]
inward self [Alter footnote]

my compassions [CSB]
affection [Geneva]
feel pity [NET]

~~~~~~~
Rob
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Synonymous parallelism is the term used describing how in Hebrew poetry, the second line restates the first line using different words.
When translating a passage, recognizing the practice helps us to define a word.

In Jeremiah 14:19 we find Jeremiah speaking to the LORD;

Hast thou utterly rejected Judah?
hath thy nafshi lothed Zion?
Why hast thou smitten us, and there is no healing for us? We looked for peace, and there is no good; And for the time of healing, and behold trouble.

soul [AV, D-R, ESV, Geneva, Wycliffe, LEB, NKJV, LXX, RSV, JPS 1917, YLT]
heart [NRSV, NRSVue]

Very many versions simply do not translate the word, simply conveying the idea that there has been a "complete" lothing, the fullness of the LORD is against Zion.

~~~~~~~~

Jeremiah 15:1
Then said the LORD unto me, Though Moses and Samuel stood before me, yet my nafshi could not be toward this people: cast them out of my sight, and let them go forth.

mind [AV, ASV, ERV, NKJV, JPS 1917]
heart [ESV, Coverdale, LEB, NAB, NASB, NIV, NRSV, RSV]
soul [Darby, D-R, Wycliffe, LSB, LXX, ]
inward self [Alter footnote]

my compassions [CSB]
affection [Geneva]
feel pity [NET]

~~~~~~~
Rob
I fully acknowledge that nephesh is a broad term. It can refer to life, self, person, desire, appetite, affection, and what we commonly call the soul. But that does not solve the question. The question is why God repeatedly appropriates nephesh language to Himself if there is no corresponding reality in God.

If God's references to His soul are merely anthropomorphic figures of speech, then what reality is being anthropomorphically described? God's will? God's affections? God's inner disposition? God's desires? Whatever answer is proposed, one has already conceded that a real aspect of God's being stands behind the language.

The issue is not whether nephesh has a range of meanings. The issue is whether God repeatedly applies nephesh language to Himself. If He does, then we must explain what real aspect of God's being is being described.

Replacing "soul" with "heart," "mind," "affection," "compassion," or "inward self" does not eliminate the reality being described. It merely changes the English label attached to it.

Indeed, many of these alternative renderings strengthen rather than weaken my point. If God's nephesh is translated as His affections, then God possesses affections. If it is translated as His inward self, then God possesses an inward self. If it is translated as His heart, then we are still dealing with language that describes something real in God. The debate is no longer over whether there is a reality being described, but only over which English word best conveys it.

Therefore, simply pointing to the semantic range of nephesh does not answer the argument. The question remains: Why does Scripture repeatedly place nephesh language upon the lips of God concerning Himself, and what divine reality is that language intended to communicate?
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The question remains: Why does Scripture repeatedly place nephesh language upon the lips of God concerning Himself, and what divine reality is that language intended to communicate?

Genesis 1:30 (ESV 2025)
And to every beast of the earth and to every bird of the heavens and to everything that creeps on the earth, everything that has the breath [nefesh] of life, [ḥayah] I have given every green plant for food.” And it was so.

In Genesis 2:7, God breathed into man's nostrils the breath of life, man became a “living being” (nefesh ḥayah)—what animated man was the breath of God. These are foundational passages where nephesh’s connection to breath and life are quite clear.

Psalm 33:6 By the word of the Lord the heavens were made, and by the breath [ruah] of his mouth all their host.

The breath that gives life emanates from the Spirit of God.
We see it clearly in the NT in 2 Timothy 3:16 - 'Scripture... breathed out by God'

A psalmist expresses what gives us life, it's God's word.

My soul [naphshi] clings to the dust;
give me life according to your word!

Psalm 119:25

Rob
 

Anthony Pritchard

Well-Known Member
Genesis 1:30 (ESV 2025)
And to every beast of the earth and to every bird of the heavens and to everything that creeps on the earth, everything that has the breath [nefesh] of life, [ḥayah] I have given every green plant for food.” And it was so.

In Genesis 2:7, God breathed into man's nostrils the breath of life, man became a “living being” (nefesh ḥayah)—what animated man was the breath of God. These are foundational passages where nephesh’s connection to breath and life are quite clear.

Psalm 33:6 By the word of the Lord the heavens were made, and by the breath [ruah] of his mouth all their host.

The breath that gives life emanates from the Spirit of God.
We see it clearly in the NT in 2 Timothy 3:16 - 'Scripture... breathed out by God'

A psalmist expresses what gives us life, it's God's word.

My soul [naphshi] clings to the dust;
give me life according to your word!

Psalm 119:25

Rob
I do not disagree that nephesh can refer to life, a living being, or that life ultimately proceeds from God. Nor do I dispute the relationship between nephesh, life, and breath in Genesis.

However, none of that addresses the question I actually raised.

The issue is not whether nephesh can describe creatures as living beings. The issue is that Scripture repeatedly places nephesh language upon the lips of God concerning Himself.

For example, God does not merely speak of imparting life to others. He says:

"My soul loathed them."

"My soul shall abhor you."

"My soul was grieved."

"My soul could not be toward this people."

In such passages, nephesh is not describing the life principle of an animal, nor the animation of Adam's body. It is describing something God attributes to Himself.

Therefore the question remains: what reality in God is being described?

If one says it means God's affections, then God possesses affections.

If one says it means God's inward self, then God possesses an inward self.

If one says it means God's desires, then God possesses desires.

If one says it means God's heart or disposition, then God possesses a heart or disposition in some real sense.

Merely demonstrating that nephesh has a broad semantic range does not answer the question. It only shows that the reality being described may be broader than what we ordinarily mean by "soul."

The burden remains to explain why God repeatedly appropriates nephesh language to Himself and what divine reality that language is intended to communicate.
 
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