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No.. . . person singular pronoun indifference reading God's word?
Do you use such a modern Bible translation, without care?
Really?No.
Would you care to give some examples of what you are talking about?
And specifically, what are the implications of doing so?
Which versions are most guilty?
So what? Those archaic pronouns are not present standard Modern English. The word of God is not bound or limited to archaic English pronouns. The word of God can be translated into present Modern English.Most translations which do not use the thee, thy, thou and thine pronouns because they are no longer being used in everyday speech.
In the OT Hebrew, Aramic and the NT Greek it still matters.So what? Those archaic pronouns are not present standard Modern English. The word of God is not bound or limited to archaic English pronouns. The word of God can be translated into present Modern English.
Alan Macgregor asserted: “Hebrew makes a gender distinction for second and third person pronouns (singular and plural) as it does also with singular demonstrative pronouns. The Greek has feminine third person plural pronouns, and feminine reflexive and reciprocal pronouns. However, the English language is incapable of effectively translating these” (400 Years On, p. 254).
William Mounce noted: “In English all imperatives are second person; in Greek there are second and third person imperatives” (Greek for the Rest of Us, p. 194).
John Beekman and John Callow wrote: “In New Testament documents, the singular form is used with plural reference with all three persons” (Translating, p. 107). John Beekman and John Callow asserted: “The use of the second person singular for the plural is found throughout the New Testament” (p. 108).matt
A post-NT Bible translation does not preserve, transfer, and keep all aspects of the Old Testament in Hebrew and Aramaic and all aspects of the Greek of the New Testament. Post-NT Bible translations are a different category than untranslated preserved original-language texts of Scripture..
In the OT Hebrew, Aramic and the NT Greek it still matters.
Matthew 5:18, For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
If thee, thou, and thine are no longer used in everyday speech, why should they be used in the Bible?Really?
Most translations which do not use the thee, thy, thou and thine pronouns because they are no longer being used in everyday speech.
This version is really not so literal after all.One attempt:
www.ModernLiteralVersion.org It is very important to read the Non-Bible pages at least once so you understand the MLV much better and its style.
Word for Word. Open source. Not for profit.
No denomination or publishing company agendas, no paraphrasing.
Yes, really.Really?
Most translations which do not use the thee, thy, thou and thine pronouns because they are no longer being used in everyday speech.
The Law has been fulfilled. Jesus said that was why He came..
In the OT Hebrew, Aramic and the NT Greek it still matters.
Matthew 5:18, For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
I think you're highlighting something many modern readers never notice.. . . person singular pronoun indifference reading God's word?
Do you use such a modern Bible translation, without care?
In modern speech the grammatical information is not so overtly conveyed within the context of a conversation.While the older pronouns may sound archaic to modern ears, they were not used merely for style. They conveyed grammatical information that English has largely lost.
Whatever translation we use, we should never read the Bible without care. As for pronouns, I imagine you are thinking particularly of the 2nd person pronoun, which in current English is "you" in both singular and plural. We usually manage to understand each other, as well as books, newspapers and periodicals perfectly well without constantly asking, "Is that "you" singular or plural?" As far as the Bible is concerned, it is usually clear from the context whether singular or plural is meant. For instance, when Jesus was speaking to Nicodemus, and saying, "You must be born again," the "you" must be singular, because He was addressing one person, Nicodemus. However, when He said:. . . person singular pronoun indifference reading God's word?
Do you use such a modern Bible translation, without care?
But the context tells us that Jesus was speaking to more than one person:.
In the OT Hebrew, Aramic and the NT Greek it still matters.
Matthew 5:18, For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
I think it were better if Christians who were confronted with this, especially in Scripture, were slower to be offended. The use of the words as insult is merely perceived insult and that is a problem on the receiving end.The use of it communicates an uppity, pretentious distance from others and a religious superiority - something that is generally avoided in polite conversation today.
True, he was addressing Nicodemus at the time. However, we can take that to also mean all mankind must be born again.For instance, when Jesus was speaking to Nicodemus, and saying, "You must be born again," the "you" must be singular, because He was addressing one person, Nicodemus.