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The Bible Is Not Infallible

kv100

New Member
By infallible, I mean incapable of textual or factual error. If someone uses “infallible” merely to mean spiritually authoritative or trustworthy concerning salvation, that is a different claim.

We begin with a fact Christianity already accepts: human beings are fallible. That alone does not prove every human product contains error, but it means perfection cannot simply be assumed. It must be demonstrated.

The Bible was not physically written, copied, translated, punctuated, edited, or compiled into one volume by God. Scripture itself distinguishes direct divine writing from human writing: the tablets were written by “the finger of God” (Ex. 31:18; Deut. 9:10). The Bible as a whole never makes that claim about itself.

Instead, it repeatedly shows human authorship. Luke says many accounts already existed, that he investigated the matter, and that he chose to write an orderly account (Luke 1:1–4). John openly says he omitted many things Jesus did (John 20:30; 21:25). Paul admits uncertainty over whether he baptized anyone else besides those he remembered (1 Cor. 1:16). Tertius identifies himself as the one who physically wrote Romans (Rom. 16:22). Jeremiah dictated to Baruch; after the scroll was destroyed, it was rewritten and “many similar words were added” (Jer. 36:32). Proverbs 25:1 says sayings of Solomon were later copied by the men of Hezekiah.

That is not mechanical dictation. Revelation operated through human memory, vocabulary, research, selection, tone, genre, scribes, editors, and historical circumstance.

2 Peter 1:21 says men spoke from God while moved by the Holy Spirit. It does not say they ceased being human. 2 Timothy 3:16 says Scripture is God-breathed and useful for teaching, correction, and training. It does not say every manuscript, copy, translation, punctuation mark, or later canonical arrangement is incapable of error.

And actual textual error exists.

In 1 Samuel 13:1, Saul’s age has disappeared from the Hebrew textual tradition; translations must reconstruct or supply it. In 2 Kings 8:26 Ahaziah is 22, while 2 Chronicles 22:2 in the Masoretic Hebrew gives 42. Both cannot be his literal accession age. In 2 Samuel 24:13 the Hebrew tradition gives seven years of famine; 1 Chronicles 21:12 gives three.

That is not theology.

Those are conflicting transmitted numbers.

The New Testament manuscript tradition is equally decisive. Mark 16:9–20 is absent from the earliest complete Greek manuscripts of Mark. John 7:53–8:11 is absent from the earliest major witnesses and appears in different locations in later manuscripts. The explicitly Trinitarian wording of 1 John 5:7–8 found in the KJV is absent from the early Greek manuscript tradition.

Two different textual forms cannot simultaneously be the exact original wording.

Translation adds another human layer. Ancient Hebrew was written primarily as consonantal text, while later scribal traditions supplied vocalization. Genesis 47:31 can therefore be read “bed” or “staff” depending upon vocalization; Hebrews 11:21 follows the “staff” reading.

Punctuation is later still. The earliest Greek New Testament manuscripts did not contain our modern punctuation. Luke 23:43 can consequently be rendered:

“Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise,”

or:

“Truly I tell you today, you will be with me in paradise.”

The Greek words remain the same. The comma is an editorial decision, and moving it changes the temporal meaning.

The same humanity appears in writing style. Luke’s polished historical prose is not Paul’s argumentative Greek. Paul in Galatians does not sound like Paul in Philemon. John’s style is not Revelation’s. Inspiration did not erase personality, temperament, vocabulary, genre, or literary ability.

Nor did the Bible compile itself.

Scripture contains no inspired table of contents. The New Testament canon developed historically; the earliest surviving document listing exactly the present 27 New Testament books is Athanasius’s Festal Letter of AD 367. Christians still do not possess one universally identical Old Testament canon: Protestant, Catholic, and Orthodox Bibles differ.

So which manuscript tradition, canon, translation, vocalization, and punctuation system is the supposedly infallible one?

A common retreat is:

“The original autographs were infallible.”

But none of those original manuscripts survives.

That claim therefore cannot establish that the Bible presently in our hands is textually infallible. What we actually possess has passed through copying, variant readings, lost readings, translation decisions, punctuation, editing, and canon formation.

None of this proves Scripture is uninspired or worthless.

It proves something narrower:

Inspiration and infallibility are not the same thing.

God may inspire revelation without rendering every human stage of its production and transmission incapable of error.

A prophet can be guided by the Holy Spirit while writing in his own voice. A Gospel writer can choose what to include. A scribe can copy a number incorrectly. A translator can choose between legitimate readings. A church can recognize a canon without becoming infallible.

God is infallible.

Human authors, scribes, translators, editors, and canon-forming communities are not.

And we do not merely infer their fallibility—we can see its effects in the surviving textual evidence.

Therefore the Bible, as the written, copied, transmitted, translated, punctuated, and compiled text actually available to us, is not infallible.

Its authority does not require pretending that 22 and 42 are the same number; that lost readings were never lost; that disputed passages were always present; that modern commas existed in manuscripts where they did not; or that every Christian tradition received the same canon.

If God is truth, then acknowledging the truth about the Bible cannot be an attack upon God.
 

Deacon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You've qualified your statement and defined your terms.

Others have defined the terms differently.

A good resource to consult is the Chicago Statement on Biblical Inerrancy [link] (written back in 1978 by a diverse group of biblical scholars).
Read through it and see if the way they defined the term helps to clarify your position.

Here are a few of their position statements:

Article X
We affirm that inspiration, strictly speaking, applies only to the authographic text of Scripture, which in the providence of God can be ascertained from available manuscripts with great accuracy. We further affirm that copies and translations of Scripture are the Word of God to the extent that they faithfully represent the original.

We deny that any essential element of the Christian faith is affected by the absence of the autographs. We further deny that this absence renders the assertion of Biblical inerrancy invalid or irrelevant.

Article XI
We affirm that Scripture, having been given by divine inspiration, is infallible, so that, far from misleading us, it is true and reliable in all the matters it addresses.

We deny that it is possible for the Bible to be at the same time infallible and errant in its assertions. Infallibility and inerrancy may be distinguished, but not separated.

Article XII
We affirm that Scripture in its entirety is inerrant, being free from falsehood, fraud, or deceit.

We deny that Biblical infallibility and inerrancy are limited to spiritual, religious, or redemptive themes, exclusive of assertions in the fields of history and science. We further deny that scientific hypotheses about earth history may properly be used to overturn the teaching of Scripture on creation and the flood.


Rob
 

Ascetic X

Well-Known Member
You sound like someone who has been instructed by modernist seminarians who seek to cast doubt on God’s Word, so as to exalt their own intellect as superior to those who trust God and obey His commands.

Even through many different translations and versions, the core teaching of the Bible has held steady. The essence of the gospel message retains its integrity. People continue to be healed, set free from addictions, and transferred from the kingdom of darkness into the realm of light as they study the Bible and follow its doctrines.
 

kv100

New Member
You sound like someone who has been instructed by modernist seminarians who seek to cast doubt on God’s Word, so as to exalt their own intellect as superior to those who trust God and obey His commands.

Even through many different translations and versions, the core teaching of the Bible has held steady. The essence of the gospel message retains its integrity. People continue to be healed, set free from addictions, and transferred from the kingdom of darkness into the realm of light as they study the Bible and follow its doctrines.
Let me illustrate my point with something practical. Language is imperfect and it is what produced scripture therefore scripture cant be perfect because it stems from something imperfect. For something to be perfect it must be perfect in it's entirity. Also, lets be honest, only God is perfect, we as humans who wrote the bible are imperfect so therefore us producing something perfect without errors is something we just incapable of doing. I emphasises in the very beginning of my post that what is not infalliable is the text itself but the authority still remains un-touched. The Holy spirit inspired the writers in the bible to write. If i said I inspired you to do something what do you think that would mean to you?
 

Kai

Active Member
I think you're conflating the preservation of Scripture with the perfection of every individual manuscript and every stage of its transmission. I don't believe God had to prevent every copying error, textual variant, or translation difficulty in order to preserve His Word.

The existence of textual variants does not mean the message itself has been lost or corrupted. In fact, we can identify many variants precisely because we have so many manuscripts to compare. Most are minor, and the disputed passages do not undermine the central teachings of Christianity.

I also don't think inspiration requires mechanical dictation. God worked through human authors, their personalities, vocabulary, research, and writing styles. That doesn't make the resulting message any less divinely inspired.

Consider Isaiah 40:8: "The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever." Jesus likewise said, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away" (Matthew 24:35).

Notice that these promises concern the endurance of God's Word, not the preservation of every individual handwritten copy without variation.

I would argue that God's providential preservation means that His Word and its essential message have remained available to His people throughout history. We don't have to pretend textual variants don't exist, nor do we have to claim every translation or manuscript is perfect. We simply have to recognize that human errors in transmission do not mean God failed to preserve what He intended us to know.

The important distinction is between a perfectly preserved message and perfectly reproduced copies. Those are not the same claim.
 

kv100

New Member
I think you're conflating the preservation of Scripture with the perfection of every individual manuscript and every stage of its transmission. I don't believe God had to prevent every copying error, textual variant, or translation difficulty in order to preserve His Word.

The existence of textual variants does not mean the message itself has been lost or corrupted. In fact, we can identify many variants precisely because we have so many manuscripts to compare. Most are minor, and the disputed passages do not undermine the central teachings of Christianity.

I also don't think inspiration requires mechanical dictation. God worked through human authors, their personalities, vocabulary, research, and writing styles. That doesn't make the resulting message any less divinely inspired.

Consider Isaiah 40:8: "The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever." Jesus likewise said, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away" (Matthew 24:35).

Notice that these promises concern the endurance of God's Word, not the preservation of every individual handwritten copy without variation.

I would argue that God's providential preservation means that His Word and its essential message have remained available to His people throughout history. We don't have to pretend textual variants don't exist, nor do we have to claim every translation or manuscript is perfect. We simply have to recognize that human errors in transmission do not mean God failed to preserve what He intended us to know.

The important distinction is between a perfectly preserved message and perfectly reproduced copies. Those are not the same claim.
I suggest you read my post from beginning to end especially take note of the first distinction i made about what exactly i mean about fallable/infalliable. On the point of preservation of scripture, did God sat he would preserve scripture or is this an assumption from that scripture speaks about him so therefore he must have preserved it? Where are you getting the understanding that God preserved scripture? Is this biblically supported?, if so could you please illustrate it with scripture.
 

Kai

Active Member
I suggest you read my post from beginning to end especially take note of the first distinction i made about what exactly i mean about fallable/infalliable.

Actually, I will refrain from responding to you further since you’ve made some of your other views known. And it seems to me like you’re just here to argue.
 
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