Sermons On Sovereignty CHS

dhk

Can you show a scripture that validates this portion of your comment ?

I believe the scripture does indicate that Predestination has something to do with ones Salvation from Eph 1:5

5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

Then explain how this being predestinated to the Adoption of Children by Jesus Christ has nothing to do with Salvation for the one so predestinated !

 

Ephesians 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

The word "predestinate" means "mark off" or "choose before." God chooses before those he knows will participate in His plan of salvation. He extends it to all who will respond in faith. Predestination is related to the foreknowledge of God (Rom.8:29).
Paul was a blasphemer, a persecutor, a murderer, etc. before his conversion. When he got saved many Christians still had a hard time that he was truly converted. How did Paul respond? God revealed to him that he was chosen to be an Apostle to the Gentiles. He knew ahead of time how Paul would respond to the gospel.
In the same way, after we are saved, we realize that God has chosen us and foreordained us, then we realize that we are chosen to do good works. That is the teaching in Ephesians 2:10.

Ephesians 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

Consider what Jesus said to his disciples, not before they were saved, but after, and after they were disciples:
John 15:16 Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.
--It is speaking of our purpose in THIS life. The question is: Are we going to submit to his will and by our own choice obey him. That was the question that Paul faced, and it is the same for us.

 

dhk

T

First of all, please be more accurate with what the word predestinate means ! Its the word proorizō :



I.to predetermine, decide beforehand


II.in the NT of God decreeing from eternity


III.to foreordain, appoint beforehand

Now you left all that out of your definition, this to me puts your motive in suspicion of promoting your own agenda !

 

Are you being deliberately dishonest with me? Come now, you know better than that.
Look at my definition: "choose before."

Now look at yours: "decide beforehand."
How much difference is there?

 

You were not honest in defining the word predestination !

 

How? My definition is the same as yours. There is no dishonesty whatsoever.

 

You must cannot read, look at your definition of predestination and the one I provided, if you don't see the difference, then it's no sense in any more dialogue for your pride and dishonesty !

 

Please answer my question, perhaps in some detail:

 

Not until you are honest enough to read my total definition of the word I posted compared to the words you posted, other than that, forget about it !

 

Why the games?

Three definitions are given. Usually the first definition is the primary definition of the word. So we go with that.

I. to predetermine, decide beforehand.
To predetermine or decide beforehand. It is saying they are one and the same.
I gave the same definition. "to choose or decide before."

What is your problem?

 

Now do you admit that you have been dishonest and did not post at first the complete definition of the word ?

 

NO! What is your problem? I have given the same definition all along.
That is why I asked you to explain what your problem is, and how you see where I have differed. I haven't.

 

More dishonesty, look at your initial post on what you said predestination means compared to mine ! They are not the same !

 

Don't falsely accuse.
Here is the entirety of your post #143:

My "agenda" is to get to the truth.
Note: Out of the three definitions, the first is the primary one and the most oft used.
Its definition, which I bolded, is "to decide beforehand."
My definition, which I bolded, is "to choose before."

There is no appreciable difference between these two definitions.
I ask again: What is your problem?
BTW, the definition was obtained from a Bible dictionary. It is not one that I made up. To be more accurate, it came from the King James Study Bible which has a variety of contributing editors of varying backgrounds, some of which came from seminaries such as Dallas Theological, Wheaton, Central, Pillsbury, Bob Jones, etc. I find their notes to be very conservative in general.

 

You are still in denial, this is not going anywhere fast ! The definition I provided is not the same as yours, and you are too proud to admit it and it's right before your eyes !

 

SBM,

I mean no malice in saying this, and I pray you don't become offended...


You're posting in a 'Baptist Only' section, and in your profile, it states you're 'non-denominational'....