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Featured vessels of wrath

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Iconoclast, Jun 16, 2016.

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  1. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    All the links speak the same truth Hank. It is spoken for a blessing to the people of God.
    Some do not believe these truths and will resist unto death, like those in Acts 7.....
    Sometimes people want to insist that these two classes of people do not exist as part of God's plan, but they do.
    I am also convinced that we are not to ignore or bypass these truths even if they are not popular by religionists who resist the truth of God. If they are included clearly in the scripture, they are included by Divine design and not optional. It is quite possible that these truths in particular are written as a means God uses to convert a multitude of sinners.
    To speak against clearly revealed truth cannot go well for the person who does that.
     
  2. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Icon you called me a clueless friend. Now you assert it is inappropriate. Go figure.

    Some posters just copy and paste and then disparage those holding differing views.

    Next your insight spews that commentators use 2 Thess. 2:13 for vessels of mercy after I post:
    2 Thessalonians 2:13 teaches we were chosen for salvation through faith in the truth. No amount of off topic insults will change the message - unconditional election is bogus.
    You have got to love them folks, :)
     
    #82 Van, Jun 23, 2016
    Last edited: Jun 23, 2016
  3. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Van,
    Some posters copy and paste good links from gifted teachers from church history that God has given to the church. Some posters are teachable and not afraid to admit that these former saints knew more than most do today and are not afraid tosearch out what they said. Posters who copy and paste from gifted teachers who are accurately handling the word of truth...do disparage persons who mock these gifted teachers and offer novelties and rejected failed ideas with anti Christ carnal thoughts as the basis of the teaching.....yes

    You have been answered countless times on your false ideas....you refuse the answer. You were asked to not post them here again...yet you persist...
    I hear a term used on here.....internet troll.....is that what you are doing??? I just googled this...maybe it will help you;

    Internet troll
    From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
    (Redirected from Troll (Internet))
    Jump to: navigation, search
    "Trolling" redirects here. For other uses, see Troll (disambiguation).
    "Please do not feed the troll" redirects here. For the Wikipedia advice, see Wikipedia:Deny recognition.
    In Internet slang, a troll (/ˈtroʊl/, /ˈtrɒl/) is a person who sows discord on the Internet by starting arguments or upsetting people, by posting inflammatory,[1] extraneous, or off-topic messages in an online community (such as a newsgroup, forum, chat room, or blog) with the deliberate intent of provoking readers into an emotional response[2] or of otherwise disrupting normal on-topic discussion,[3] often for their own amusement.


    What is so hard to grasp here....In post 56...the link I offered mentioned several verses to contrast vessels of mercy, from vessels of wrath. I offered the link, as it described vessels of wrath as part of it.....to give the context of the statement.
    The OP. is about vessels of wrath.

    You have to decide if you want to interact with the OP or not. I did not post the thread so you could go off and offer the same verses you offer on every other thread. It does not matter what the topic is, you try and offer the same verses no matter what.
    You can call me whatever names you like.....it does not bother me.
    However...if and when you do, I can ignore it or offer some return metaphors in your direction....you then start crying like a little schoolgirl and looking for a loophole to wiggle out of the situation. if you cannot stand the heat...don't play in the kitchen.:Cautious
     
  4. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Here is a man who defends the supralapsarian position on this teaching; do you agree or disagree with him and why;
    http://www.abaptistvoice.com/English/Articles/Grace/TwoKindsOfVessels.htm
    vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory" (Rom. 9:20-23).

    Very few preachers living today will ever dare to read these verses in their churches, much less give an honest exposition of them to their people. If their members inquire about these verses most preachers will try to explain away their plain sense. We live in a time when Arminianism has gained the upperhand of the theological world. Very few preachers can be found who really and truly believe in sovereign grace and will preach it to their people. Even most so-called sovereign gracers are in truth Calminians.

    Those who fear God and take the words of the Bible seriously can see that these verses teach election and reprobation according to Gods sovereignty. Here is seen the greatness of the Creator and the nothingness of the creature. Gods will is supreme and right in eternity and time. In an unusual manner, Paul clears God from any charge of cruelty and unmercifulness by observing His conduct in time toward both the elect and the reprobate.
    VESSELS OF WRATH

    In the first two verses God is represented as the Potter, and men as clay in His hands (Isa. 64:8; Jer. 18:1-6). As the potter has power over the clay to shape it in what form he pleases, so God has unlimited power over His creatures to make from the same lump of human clay vessels of wrath and vessels of mercy. No truly saved person challenges that right of God. Rather, he most reverently bows to it as the Scripture of truth. What would the ability to fashion be worth, if God were under the dictation of that which is to be fashioned?

    I understand by "vessels of wrath" vessels which are destined to be objects of wrath, or vessels to be filled up with Gods wrath (Isa. 51:20). In I Thessalonians 5:9 Paul said: "For God hath not appointed us to wrath, but to obtain salvation by our Lord Jesus Christ." These words suggest that God did appoint some to wrath who are called in my text "vessels of wrath."

    Here is seen the doctrine of reprobation or rejection. Although this doctrine is sparingly mentioned in the Bible, it most assuredly is taught in my text and in other places. If God chose some to salvation (II Thess. 2:13), then common sense teaches us that others were unchosen. In Romans 11:7 Paul said: ". . .the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded." In John 13:18 Christ said: "I speak not of you all; I know whom I have chosen," implying some were not chosen. According to John 17:6 the Father gave Christ a people "out of the world." Then there must be a world not given to Christ (II Peter 2:5; I John 5:19), and for which He will not pray (John 17:9). There can be no election without reprobation, for reprobation is the negative side of election.

    The Divine decree of the rejection of some men is twofold: preterition and predamnation. Preterition is a mere leaving of the creature out of the bounds of Gods election. Predamnation is Gods appointment of the non-elect to everlasting wrath. Preterition is negative; predamnation is positive. Preterition is God withholding His grace to which no man has a claim. Predamnation is God considering man as a guilty sinner who deserved condemnation and wrath.

    The words, "the same lump," speaks of man as lying in the mere mass of creatorship, pictured by unformed clay before being put into shape. While in this state some were rejected. God left them as He found them in the pure mass before they had done either good or evil (Rom. 9:11). This was an act of Gods sovereign will and pleasure. That is why Paul starts out by saying: "What if God, willing to shew his wrath. . ." God had a greater right to do this than any earthly potter.

    Predamnation is Gods appointment of men Who He passed over to punishment for their sins (Jude 4). God gave some "over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient" (Rom. 1:28). In Psalm 81:12 God said He "gave them up unto their own hearts lusts." The reprobate God left in their natural condition of enmity against God. He denied these the grace that could have cured their depraved hearts (Ezek. 36:26-27; Matt. 11:25-26). These are given up to believe a lie and be damned (II Thess. 2:10-12). Such wicked persons are "reserved to the day of destruction" and "shall be brought forth to the day of wrath" (Job 21:30). Job 20:29 says: "This is the portion of a wicked man from God, and the heritage appointed unto him by God."
     
  5. Internet Theologian

    Internet Theologian Well-Known Member

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  6. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Insofar as I understand the argument, I do not see that the supralapsarian position is necessary to incorporate this “double predestination” (this "doctrine of predamination").

    It has been suggested (and probably correctly) that “predamination” is a minority position within Calvinism. I agree God created vessels of wrath, and that these were “decreed” as such (I agree with “double predestination”). But I do not understand how this is dependent on suprlapasarianism as it seems to me that some of the “problems” of “predamination” are remedied within the perspective of infralapsarianism. In other words, in terms of "logical orders", it seems to me that Scripture presents God's work of redemption to be one of saving out of the race of fallen man, and it seems to me that this is as far as we need to go in looking at exactly how God "planned" salvation.

    I bring this up because it seems to me that Scripture also presents God as saving out of fallen man a people as His own particular possession (although, of course, I understand the philosophical arguments on both sides of this isle…and most likely neither truly encompass God’s mind in the “planning stage”). It does seem that, if Israel is an example, infralapsarianism has merit in terms of a “logical order” of God’s “decree to elect”.

    How do you believe that this article, and your position (if the it is reflected in the article) addresses and defends against the infralapsarian position?
     
  7. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    I do not hold what this man does.
    I did think he offered some solid ideas that need to be considered in this discussion.
     
  8. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I agree that he offered some solid ideas. What part of his position do you disagree with?
     
  9. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I believe that when we start examining this topic, we need to keep in mind that we are not equipped to understand the mind of God beyond what He has revealed. It’s like SG’s illustration (on another thread) of Jesus laying down His life being like the athlete who sacrificed himself to save others. From one angle the illustration holds up (Jesus lay down His life). From another it does not (God is not like a gunman who kills out of hate).

    I think that the same is true of “logical orders”. We can look at things in an order (which would be chronological) but we can’t be dogmatic about the mind of God (as if one thought or plan was dependent of another…i.e., a process).

    So I do believe that God’s election was not “dependent” on the Fall, but the Fall was dependent on God’s plan of election. At the same time, however, when discussing election I lean towards the idea that God chose to save for His own glory and as a demonstration of His mercy (which presumes electing a people out of fallen man). Both positions are, IMHO, worth studying.
     
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  10. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Folks, all this "predamnation" fiction is unbiblical. No verse will be cited. However, God does teach the opposite, God desires all men to be saved, 1 Timothy 2:4.

    No one was made a vessel of wrath before creation, but Adam's sin resulted in everyone being made sinners, thus vessels of wrath. The wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men. The unnamed doctrine gets the cart before the horse once again.

    Only one view is worthy of study, the fact that when God chooses someone for salvation it is a act of mercy. Therefore it occurs during the life of a fallen person. :)
     
    #90 Van, Jun 24, 2016
    Last edited: Jun 24, 2016
  11. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Folks see post #7
     
  12. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Of course Gods desire is that all man be saved. God does not take pleasure in the destruction if the wicked. And it is because God desires all to be saved, and all to obey, that sin is what it is. I have not read a post yet that has stated otherwise (that God wants people to perish).
     
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  13. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    No mention of pre-damnation anywhere? :)
     
  14. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    A mention of "predamintion" in the article (which I understand to mean "decreed reprobation"). But I don't see a rejection of the truth that God desires all to be saved (I don't understand how sin could exist in such a context). But I have not read this entire thread either.
     
    #94 JonC, Jun 24, 2016
    Last edited: Jun 24, 2016
  15. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Not to put too fine a point on it, but since God desires all men to be saved, logically He would have provided the opportunity for all to be saved. Thus Christ died for all men, again demonstrating that the idea of individual election before creation is fiction.

    And again, not to put too fine a point on it, but that is why the nameless doctrine folks advocate limited atonement, because since Christ died as a ransom for all, the idea that God elected individuals for redemption before creation is demonstrated false.
     
  16. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I believe there is a "universal opportunity", but for clarity - how is it logical that if God desires all to be saved then He must have provided that universal opportunity in terms of unlimited atonement?
     
  17. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    I am not going to debate the obvious. Since God desires all men to be saved, Christ laid down His life as a ransom for all.

    Now you try it another way, God desires all men to be saved, so Christ died for some of them. Does it hang together for you? :)
     
  18. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    Like I said, I believe that Christ died so that all men may be saved. I also believe that Christ died so that some men will be saved.

    What I am questioning is your logic and definitions. God desiring that all be saved does not mean that He must have provided the same opportunity for all men to be saved. For example, I believe that all men have an opportunity and that all men fall short of that opportunity becoming a reality. Out of mankind, however, God draws some to Himself. There are (to my understanding) both universal and limited aspects of Christ's death - but this death constitutes applied atonement only to those who believe).

    The argument that "since God desires all men be saved, Christ laid down His life as a ransom for all" is neither a necessarily obvious or logical conclusion. Desiring a thing does not demand that one facilitate that thing coming into being.
     
    #98 JonC, Jun 24, 2016
    Last edited: Jun 24, 2016
  19. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    No need to change the subject or misrepresent my view. Did I say or suggest God provides an actual opportunity or the same opportunity to everyone? Nope.

    There is absolute nothing wrong with my logic or definitions.

    Christ died as a ransom for all. There is absolutely no limited aspect.

    Only those whose faith God credits as righteousness are transferred into Christ, there is absolutely no universal aspect.

    No one receives reconciliation unless they are put into Christ. His death did not apply reconciliation to anyone.

    Like I said, you can claim God making provision for mankind because He desires all mankind to be saved is not logical till the cows come home. Your view is absurd. If God desires something, He would not take action to preclude it. :)
     
  20. JonC

    JonC Moderator
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    I must have been unclear in expressing my position. Sorry, brother. Maybe this will help clarify:


    I agree that there is nothing "wrong" with your logic when it comes to what you believe. When I say that I question them I mean in application. Your position is perfectly logical until it comes to the point of seeing everything but unlimited atonement as not "obvious" or "not logical".

    You said in post# 97 that since God desires all be saved, Christ lay down His life as a ransom for all. Now, I said that I agreed with you on that point, but disagree that it is the only obvious and logical view. I said that I (not you, but me) believes that this is a provision for all to be saved, but at the same time a certainty for those God will draw. So I also believe that Christ died to ransom all of humanity. The difference being that I believe Christ died knowing a people for whose's sin He would actually atone.

    My point is that if reasoning were not the issue here (if there is only one reasonable position) then we would not be having this argument.
     
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