Featured The Meanings of 'For'

The word 'for' appears rather a lot in the New Testament, well over 1,000 times in the KJV and equally often, I think in many other versions.
I was interested to discover that there are 21 Greek words which the KJV translates as 'for.' Just in case anyone is interested, they are:
anti
apo
achri
gar
dia (a few times with the genitive, several times with the accusative)
dioti
de
eis
ek
en
heneka
epeide
epi (sometimes with the accusative, sometimes with the dative)
kai
kai gar
kata
hoti
peri
pros
huper
hos
touto charin 'For this cause'
[Taken from Young's Analytical Concordance]

Sometimes 'for' means 'because' or maybe 'you see....' as in Romans 1:18; 'For the wrath of God is revealed.....' Sometimes it means 'until' (Luke 4:13). Sometimes it means 'therefore,' sometimes 'with a view to' or 'concerning' (eg. Matthew 6:34); sometimes 'in consideration of' (Mark 10:5), and sometimes 'on behalf of (eg. Matthew 5:44).

When we look at 1 Peter 3:18, we find the word 'for' three times, translating three different Greek words. 'For [Gk. hoti] Christ also suffered once for [Gk. peri] sins, the just for [Gk. huper] the unjust, that He might bring us to God.'
Hoti means simply 'because' (eg. Mark 12:32; Luke 1:45). Peri often means 'concerning' or 'in respect of' (eg. Matthew 6:28; 1 Thessalonians 1:2), but it seems also to have the sense of 'on behalf of' (eg. Luke 22:32; Hebrews 2:9). Huper seems almost invariably to mean 'on behalf of' (eg. Matthew 5:44; John 11:50-52; Romans 5:7-8). Eight times it is translated 'for the sake of' (eg. John 13:37-38).

So my initial point is that it would be better to translate 1 Peter 3:18, 'Because Christ also suffered once concerning sins, the just on behalf of the unjust.' I'm not aware of any translation that does this. I wonder why not.

My second point concerns an exchange I had with @JonC on the 'Penal Substitution Reprised' thread.
I wrote:

1 Peter 3:18. 'For Christ also suffered once for sins [peri hamartion].........' Peri with the genitive case means 'Concerning' or 'in respect of.' See Matthew 2:8; 6:29; 22:16 etc. So what does it mean that Christ suffered in respect of our sins? The rest of the verse can help us. '........The Just for the unjust [huper adikon] that He might bring us to God.' Huper with the genitive case means 'on behalf of' as I wrote earlier. See Matthew 5:44; Luke 22:19-20; John 10:11 etc.

So we're back where we started.
If I write a letter for someone, I write it on his behalf. I write it, he doesn't. I write it instead of him.
If I pay a debt for someone, I pay it on his behalf. I pay it, he doesn't. I pay it instead of him.
If I die for someone, I die on his behalf. I die, he doesn't. I die instead of him.

But if we ask how Christ the Just One suffered in respect of sins, Peter has already explained it to us: 'Who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree' (1 Peter 2:24). So He, the just One, bore the sins of us, the unjust, on our behalf. Where is He bearing them? On the 'tree.' So when Peter says bearing our sins and 'suffering,' he means suffering crucifixion 'in respect' of them. He is bearing them 'on our behalf.'

If I bear sins for someone, I bear them on his behalf. I bear them, he doesn't, I bear them instead of him.

Finally, why does Peter say that Christ bore our sins 'on the tree' [epi to xulov] instead of 'on the cross' [epi to staurion]? Because he has Deuteronomy 21:23 in mind. 'Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree.' mankind is under a curse because of sin (Galatians 3:10), but 'Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us' [huper hemon] Huper with the genitive again. Christ became a curse on our behalf.

If I become a curse for someone, I become a curse on his behalf. I am cursed, he isn't. I suffer the curse instead of him.

'By His wounds we are healed.' Christ has borne the penalty of sin on our behalf. Penal Substitution. He has suffered instead of us the penalty in respect of sin. 'God is angry with sinners every day,' but He is no more angry with His people because Christ has redeemed them, by paying the penalty on their behalf so that God can be 'just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.'

To which @JonC replied

I'm not quite sure what he means by saying that it is "on our behalf," but not on "the behalf." My question is, does huper in 1 Peter 3:18 have the meaning 'on behalf of' or can it equally well mean 'because of'? And if 'because of' was the Spirit's meaning, why didn't He use dia or heneka which have that meaning?

I have some knowledge of Greek, but I don't count myself an expert, so I'll be happy to receive correction from one of the Greek scholars here.

 

The sins certainly belong to 'us,' but He bore them in His body (ἐν τῷ σώματι αὐτοῦ). 'The LORD has laid on Him the iniquities of us all.'

But you are taking no account of ἅπαξ. Christ has died once and for all concerning our sins, which must surely mean that we bear them no longer. He has suffered in respect of our sins; we don't have to.

Your loved ones are not with you in the battle; you are fighting it on their behalf. I do not have to write the exact same letter that you have written because you have done so on my behalf.

But again, you are missing out the context of the ἅπαξ. 'By His wounds we are healed.' It is a done deal. If you die on the battlefield, the battle may still be lost; your loved ones may still have to fight and die. If you write that letter, I still have to write one in order to apply and I may still not get the job. This is not the case in the context of 1 Peter 3:18. He, the just one, has borne our sins; we don't have to. 'There is no therefore no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.' Christ has become a curse ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν. 'Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us.' He has redeemed us; He became a curse; we are no longer cursed. He became sin ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him. He became sin; we (believers) have become perfect righteousness through our union with Him.

He has borne our sins on our behalf; we no longer bear them. He bore them instead of us.

 

I don't recall having mentioned the wages of sin; you may be suffering them, but my sins are already forgiven (cf. Mark 2:5) and I already have eternal life (1 John 5:11-13). In fact, I am already seated in the heavenly places (Ephesians 2:6) and to live is Christ and to die is gain. Because Christ actually has taken my place. He has borne my sins so that I do not have to. He was made sin-- 'numbered with the transgressors'-- so that I may become the righteousness of God in Him. This is an exchange; He receives my sin and pays the penalty for it and I receive His perfect righteousness (1 Corinthians 1:30; 2 Peter 1:1). Penal Substitution.

But I am depressed that you have not addressed my last post in any way. I want to see you deal effectively with.....anything really , but you could start with Galatians 3:13. 'Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us.' He has redeemed us; He became a curse-- for whom? For us: ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν, on our behalf. He became a curse; we are no longer cursed. That is what redemption means. Penal Substitution.

 

Really? I suggest you read Romans 8:3, and then do a search on 'Inaugurated Eschatology.'

I'm delighted to tell you that I am already alive in Christ (Ephesians 2:4-6). I have already died with Christ and been raised with Him, and now my life is hidden with him in God (Colossians 3:1-4).

'You were running a good race. Who cut in on you and kept you from obeying the truth?' Unfortunately, you have been imposed on by someone who has foisted a false set of presuppositions upon you, which you urgently need to shake off.

However, all this is a rabbit-trail. Why don't you make a proper comment on my posts #1 and #3?[/QUOTE]

 

I'm not really arguing with you, I'm just quoting Scripture to you, none of which you are referencing.

However, you have gone down this rabbit-trail to avoid dealing with the OP. Either do so or stop posting and let someone else have a go. If you want to debate inaugurated eschatology, start another thread.

 

So you have no reply to my OP and post #3. Thank you for tacitly admitting such.
FYI, I referenced 27 verses or pericopes of Scripture in my OP. and some more in post #3. Just saying.

 

Rather than deal with my reply, you have re-posted your argument with a slight twist. You are no longer dying for your loved one, merely fighting for her. But here is my reply again. See if you can deal with it.

Your loved ones are not with you in the battle; you are fighting it on their behalf. I do not have to write the exact same letter that you have written because you have done so on my behalf.

But again, you are missing out the context of the ἅπαξ. 'By His wounds we are healed.' It is a done deal. If you die on the battlefield, the battle may still be lost; your loved ones may still have to fight and die. If you write that letter, I still have to write one in order to apply and I may still not get the job. This is not the case in the context of 1 Peter 3:18. He, the just one, has borne our sins; we don't have to. 'There is no therefore no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus.' Christ has become a curse ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν. 'Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us.' He has redeemed us; He became a curse; we are no longer cursed. He became sin ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him. He became sin; we (believers) have become perfect righteousness through our union with Him.

He has borne our sins on our behalf; we no longer bear them. He bore them instead of us.

The consequences of sin are death and hell. Fortunately we have now died to sin or is Romans 6:2 not in your Bible? Unless Christ comes beforehand we shall certainly 'sleep in Christ' until His return, but death has lost its sting for Christians (1 Corinthians 15:55). Of course 'everyone who has this hope in him purifies himself,' and certainly we are likely to 'have been grieved by various trials' but 'believing, [we] rejoice with joy inexpressible and full of glory.'

Your problem seems to be that you have an under-inaugurated eschatology which is limiting the joy of your salvation. I really hope you can get over that. In the meantime encourage yourself with verses like Galatians 3:13. 'Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us.' He has redeemed us; He became a curse-- for whom? For us: ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν, on our behalf. He became a curse; we are no longer cursed. That is what redemption means. Penal Substitution. Wonderful!

You are wrong, brother. I wish that you could see beyond the lens of your own theory and just once view the passages in all their fullness and see both the necessity and the glory of Penal Substitution. . I don't think, since we are arguing the issue, that it is possible for it to happen here. But perhaps in the future, in some quiet time, you may reflect on a few of the truths of Scripture and decide what is stated is sufficient if you take Scripture with Scripture and look outside of your own presuppositions.[/QUOTE]