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Your KJVO myth is false.

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by robycop3, Feb 27, 2018.

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  1. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    Start a new thread on the topic. Van has had quite a number of unsuccessful NIV bashing threads. He's still licking his wounds. ;-) I'm sure you'll uncover his talking points. Have at it.
     
    #181 Rippon, Mar 2, 2018
  2. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Convenient...
     
    #182 HankD, Mar 2, 2018
  3. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Nope, sorry, I didn't stutter. As I said before on this thread, I have compared almost all (probably all) of the KJV with the Greek, and it is an extremely accurate version even today, as long as one understands 1611 English, as I often tell my students.
     
    #183 John of Japan, Mar 2, 2018
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  4. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    I can say no more than I have. There is danger. Van might be reading this very thread. :Cool
     
    #184 John of Japan, Mar 2, 2018
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  5. Rippon

    Rippon Well-Known Member
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    You're comparing it with the Byz., I assume? So the KJV departs from the Greek of your choice a good number of times. Not nearly as much as the NU, but...
     
    #185 Rippon, Mar 2, 2018
  6. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    Six Hour Warning
    This thread will be closed sometime after 1:30 PM Pacific.
     
    #186 Squire Robertsson, Mar 2, 2018
  7. loDebar

    loDebar Well-Known Member

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    I assume you compared from English to Greek, reverse it go from Greek to English and see if there is a difference. English has "latitude" in meanings.
     
    #187 loDebar, Mar 2, 2018
  8. SheepWhisperer

    SheepWhisperer Active Member

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    Pronoun "you"
    Thee, thou, thine are singular
    You, ye and your, are plural. In this respect the King James is more precise.
     
    #188 SheepWhisperer, Mar 2, 2018
  9. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    HOW SILLY!

    The note reads "him, I" - NOT "i. e,"!

    Your whole rant is incorrect!
     
    #189 robycop3, Mar 2, 2018
  10. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    In other words, YOU CAN'T ANSWER!

    A doctrine is something that's taught. And the KJVO myth certainly fits that criterion. it's taught in several congregations, Baptist (unfortunately) as well as in many SDA congregations & others. But it was, and is, phony as a $3 bill.

    We must conclude that since you can't answer a simple, legitimate question, you're stumped & clueless, and all your pro-KJVO stuff is thermal atmosphere, not to be believed by any Christian.
     
    #190 robycop3, Mar 2, 2018
    Last edited: Mar 2, 2018
  11. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    You seem to have missed the point. The Hebrew word is "him." It is not English (him - a pronoun referring to a male) but is a masculine pronoun, plural, referring to a group of males (it would have to be neuter to refer to the words). Therefore the only possible antecedent of the masculine personal plural pronoun is the "poor and needy" of verse 5.

    Hebrew grammar demands the antecedent is the "poor" and "needy" of verse 5. If it refers to the "words" then God made a grammatical mistake when He inspired the Psalm.

    So you have to choose. Is God an idiot or is He all knowing. I vote for the latter.
     
    #191 TCassidy, Mar 2, 2018
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  12. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    "Feed" both times. What's your point?
     
    #192 TCassidy, Mar 2, 2018
  13. TCassidy

    TCassidy Late-Administator Emeritus
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    Jesus is my Instructor, Master, and Teacher too, and He taught me that the Hebrew in Psalm 12:6-7 is referring to the poor and needy of verse 6.

    Is Jesus wrong in His teaching?

    Is the bible wrong in what God inspired? (Did He inspire an error?)

    It is rather silly to be willing to die on this hill, Psalm 12:6-7, when preservation of the scriptures is taught in literally dozens of other places in the bible.
     
    #193 TCassidy, Mar 2, 2018
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  14. Pastor_Bob

    Pastor_Bob Well-Known Member

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    100% agree.
     
    #194 Pastor_Bob, Mar 2, 2018
  15. John of Japan

    John of Japan Well-Known Member
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    Nope. I am a Bible translator (currently teaching a course on it in our seminary). In the process of translating the Greek NT into Japanese, I have compared the KJV and the Greek in all or almost all of the NT. I make my statement that the KJV is a great translation based on that.
     
    #195 John of Japan, Mar 2, 2018
  16. Squire Robertsson

    Squire Robertsson Administrator
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    This thread is closed.
     
    #196 Squire Robertsson, Mar 2, 2018
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