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Does God need a mother?

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by SaggyWoman, Dec 15, 2005.

  1. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Does it say that Abraham is God too ?
    Read the following:
    Even as Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him lord : whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.

    Remember that there was no distinction of Captial letter and small letter in the texts
     
  2. jesusrocks

    jesusrocks New Member

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    Does it say that Abraham is God too ?
    Read the following:
    Even as Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him lord : whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.

    Remember that there was no distinction of Captial letter and small letter in the texts
    </font>[/QUOTE]No, Abraham is not God, but Jesus is... so the substitution could legitimately stand in the passage from Luke, but not from Peter's epistle, because "God" does not describe who Abraham was, but it does describe Who Jesus is.

    I don't have a problem with the title because it protects the divinity of Christ. Jesus is God.

    It's sad that so many tear down a great woman of faith--of the Bible-- because of overly Catholic fears. The Bible calls her blessed among women, and we see her great faith in the Lord demonstrated. She is a model for all women, just as Abraham was a great model of faith in God.

    Anyhow... Mary was the "mother of the Lord" at any rate... and any women who has children will argue that women are mothers of PERSONS, not of bags of flesh. Calling Mary the "mother of God" doesn't elevate her, because it only describes her Son... and His divinity, not hers.
     
  3. Doubting Thomas

    Doubting Thomas Active Member

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    Red hering.

    I could also say...
    No Bible writer said "God is Trinity" or "God is one undivided essence in three distinct Persons"

    Nor did any Bible writer ever say "The Word is consubstantial with the God the Father". IN FACT, Arian heretics seized on this absence of such an explicit statement (and term) to show that Christ was not one essence with the father.

    Therefore, it should be evident that the absense of a specific phrase or term from the Bible doesn't automatically make such a phrase or term false.
     
  4. jesusrocks

    jesusrocks New Member

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    Close -- but "no cigar".

    If the RCC had been content to just LEAVE IT at the Luke 1:43 statement we would not be seeing THEM talk about "gathering to Mary's altars to worship".
    </font>[/QUOTE]I wasn't aware this was in relation to the RCC...

    the title can stand whether Catholics believe it or not, no matter what Catholics do with it. the purpose of the title, as has been brought up with the Council of Ephesus, is to protect the divinity of Christ from the Nestorian heresy. Jesus is God. Period.
     
  5. natters

    natters New Member

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    Certainly the Bible writers said no such thing.
    </font>[/QUOTE]And certainly no one here is saying it either.

    Only if one persists in ignoring what others are saying.

    No it doesn't. Mother doesn't mean origin.

    Maybe they're connected for some, but they - like you - are using the wrong meaning of the term.

    Is Jesus God? Yes or no. If yes, that's all we're saying. If no, we're done.

    Yes, because you repeatedly miss the bigger point.
     
  6. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    1. What I wanted to show you by mentioning Abraham is that Mother of Lord was not necessarily meaning Mother of God, because Lord (Adonai) was often used for indicating any superior person and Elisabeth didn't mean she is Mother of God. Therefore your formula (Kurio=Lord=God) doesn't stand.

    2. Mary was a believer in the Lord. Not only Mary but also many other women were blessed by God too. Indeed Mary did the most important role, but she was a human and called herself as a handmaid, and she was a person needing a Savior (Lk1:47) because she was a sinner heading toward the hell without the redemption Jesus Christ, but saved by the grace of God based on the sacrifice of Jesus Christ. She is a creature before the Creator Jesus.
    That is why she sometimes made mistakes,i.e. she called Joseph as the Father of Jesus, but Jesus answered He had to be at His Father's business. (Lk 2:48-49) Her understanding about the Father of Jesus was different from what Jesus was talking about.
    She was moved by the brothers of Jesus (her sons) and came to tell Jesus something. We can presume that she tried to ask Jesus to refrain from preaching for fear of condemnation by the people. Jesus said who is my mother ? (Mt 12:48)
    Whoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, sister, and mother!(Mt 12:50) He didn't say " Look at my Mother!" or" Look at the Mother of God!"
    She was supposed to listen to Him but instead went there to tell something to Him with the unbelieving brothers. This is why Jesus assigned her to John because she was so weak to be moved by His brothers who were unbelieving at that time. She never predicted the resurrection of Jesus. If she knew it, she would not have been to the tomb with perfume. It is very much significant that Jesus showed up to Mary Magdalene first, not to Mary His mother.

    The reason why the believers refuse Mother of God is because it leads to the misunderstanding about the creature as the word Mother means to all human being, with only one exception of Jesus, Pre-existence and Production. No one existed before his or her mother. But God existed before Mary and the word Mother of God elevates the creature above Creator.

    3. This is why Heb 7:2-3 rejects that Son of God has Mother.
    The 2 verses say both Melchisedec and Son of God
    1) King of Righteousness
    2) King of Peace
    3) No Father (earthly)
    4) No Mother
    5) No geneology
    6)No beginning
    7) No ending
    8) Living forever
    9) Priest
    In those 9 aspects both persons are the same (Heb 7:15) therefore Jesus , Son of God, was declared as a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.

    If the Hebrews writer recognized Son of God has Mother of God, he wouldn't have mentioned No Mother as a common point. This coincides with the fact that none of the apostles called Mary as Mother of God. Instead they called " Mother of Jesus, Mother of Lord, Mother of Joses, Mother of James " (Mark 15:40, 15:47, 16:1, Luke 24:10)or simply woman (Gal 4:4)
    Gal 4:22-26 mentions Sarah-Jerusalem is our Mother. We can find Mary exalted so much as Sarah nowhere in the Bible.

    4. Historically, Mother of God lead to the Maria worship as Holy Mother of God, and Idol worship of Mary's statues.

    I mentioned Human Syllogism doesn't work in the Bible interpretation in other thread " Does God have a Mother?"
    by illustrating : Word was God, Word became flesh, God became flesh, God didn't become what is not God but God indeed, therefore Flesh is God. We have to worship flesh as God - a silly comedy. In many other illustrations, I explained Human Syllogism is a silly comedy in God's view.

    Therefore we have to stay on the exact expression used in the Bible. Namely we can call her, Mother of Jesus, Mother of Lord. Isn't that enough? then you may have to much eagerness to exzalt and venerate a creature even above God, to worship a Goddess,which has been a big human problem throughout the history.

    [ December 18, 2005, 09:52 PM: Message edited by: Eliyahu ]
     
  7. natters

    natters New Member

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    Then what did she mean? In what way did she believe the child was her "Lord"?

    See - even Jesus used the term "mother" in a way that did not mean "Pre-existence and Production".

    See - Jesus was not saying Mary was the origin of John. He used the word "mother" in a way that did not mean "origin of".

    A misunderstanding that is easily cleared up. Some refuse the term Trinity, because they think it means three gods - another misunderstanding that is easily cleared up.

    False. Ask anyone who has been adopted.

    Everyone here agrees.

    No it doesn't, just as the term "father David" (Luke 1:32) doesn't elevate David above the Creator.

    If your understanding of that passage is correct, why do so many other verses say Mary was his "mother"?

    Just because something is abused, doesn't mean the thing itself is wrong.

    Yes, it is silly comedy. It is also a silly strawman.

    But if Jesus is God, then what's the difference? Also if "Mother of Lord" is OK with you, how do you explain that he existed as "Lord" before Mary gave birth to him? Doesn't that go against all the pre-existence arguments you have been repeating?
     
  8. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Then what did she mean? In what way did she believe the child was her "Lord"?

    She just believed anyone very much superior and didn't have any theology at all. I explained this already, mentioning Sarah called Abraham as Lord. Did she mean God? Did Elisabeth knew about Trinity?

    See - even Jesus used the term "mother" in a way that did not mean "Pre-existence and Production".

    See - Jesus was not saying Mary was the origin of John. He used the word "mother" in a way that did not mean "origin of".

    That is the case Jesus meant Mother as in Mt 12:50.Whosoever does the will of God is His mother. So, mother of John meant " mother in the faith" as you can read 1Tim 5:2

    A misunderstanding that is easily cleared up. Some refuse the term Trinity, because they think it means three gods - another misunderstanding that is easily cleared up.

    Historically it was not cleared up. Such expression caused " Mary worship, Mary Statue worship, Mary's statue bleeding from the eyes, Holy Mother of Church, merciless killing of believers who refuse such calling, prayer to Mary, Immaculate Conception Hoax, Assumption, etc."

    False. Ask anyone who has been adopted.

    True : Nobody created his or her mother, except Jesus

    Everyone here agrees.

    No it doesn't, just as the term "father David" (Luke 1:32) doesn't elevate David above the Creator.
    Do you call David as "Father of God" ?

    If your understanding of that passage is correct, why do so many other verses say Mary was his "mother"?
    Not the Mother of God. The writer knew the fact that Mary was His mother, but ignores her in mentioning Mother of God

    Just because something is abused, doesn't mean the thing itself is wrong.

    Our Holy Spirit in us prohibits any exaltation of creature above God.

    Yes, it is silly comedy. It is also a silly strawman.

    But if Jesus is God, then what's the difference? Also if "Mother of Lord" is OK with you, how do you explain that he existed as "Lord" before Mary gave birth to him? Doesn't that go against all the pre-existence arguments you have been repeating? </font>[/QUOTE]Human concept of Lord is not connected with Pre-existence and Production while God is connected with Pre-existence and Creation.

    [ December 18, 2005, 10:36 PM: Message edited by: Eliyahu ]
     
  9. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    If you examine your heart and find why you are not satisfied with Mother of Lord but seek Mother of God, then you can find the difference between 2 concepts.
     
  10. natters

    natters New Member

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    I have examined my heart, and I see no difference between the terms, since Jesus is Lord and Jesus is God.
     
  11. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    If you do not find any difference, why do you want to add to what Bible expresses?

    I already told you Human Syllogism doesn't work in Bible interpretation.

    In your logic,
    If Mary is Mother of God,
    Holy Spirit is God, therefore Mary is Mother of Holy Spirit too.
    God the Father is God, therefore Mary is Mother of God the Father too.

    In such a logic, (either Syllogism or not), you reach the funny result and eventually you are meaning Mary is Mother of God the Father and God the Holy Spirit!
     
  12. natters

    natters New Member

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    What does this mean?

    She called Mary the mother of her Lord. Who was she referring to, and how was that person her "Lord"?

    But you said "mother" means to all human being, with only one exception of Jesus, Pre-existence and Production. Now you are agreeing it has other meanings. Good for you! [​IMG]

    I agree! But many people have had a "mother" that didn't mean "Pre-existence and Production".

    Do you call David as "Father of God" ?
    </font>[/QUOTE]Scripture calls David "his father". And David called him his "Lord". He is Lord and God of his fore-father, David.

    Not the Mother of God.
    </font>[/QUOTE]Is he "God"? Yes or no. Simple.

    No one is disagreeing.

    Yes, it is silly comedy. It is also a silly strawman.

    Human concept of Lord is not connected with Pre-existence and Production while God is connected with Pre-existence and Creation.</font>[/QUOTE]I don't understand your answer, or what it has to do with my question. Can you answer more clearly?
     
  13. natters

    natters New Member

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    I do not believe I am adding to what the Bible expresses, any more than I am adding to what the Bible expresses when I use the word "Trinity". Mary was the mother of Jesus. Jesus is God, the Word, made flesh.

    So you say. Yet you never explain why, except by building some silly strawmen as examples.

    Again, you obviously need to better understand the orthodox explanation of the Trinity. I suggest the Athanasian Creed as a great starting place.
     
  14. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Excellent point. But ALSO you get into things like "Mary is allpowerful like God" and "At the command of Mary ALL obey EVEN GOD"!!

    Those documented RC statements are "perfectly predictable" given the "Mother of God" excess as a starting point.

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  15. natters

    natters New Member

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    If those are documented RC statements, are you able to provide the reference information?
     
  16. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Of course when you consider that God -- (Father Son and Holy Spirit ) is in fact "All powerful" it is no wonder that "The Mother of God" is given all those powers listed above!!

    Hence the Bible writers NEVER use the term!

    In Christ,

    Bob
     
  17. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    I agree! But many people have had a "mother" that didn't mean "Pre-existence and Production".

    Many? who?

    Scripture calls David "his father". And David called him his "Lord". He is Lord and God of his fore-father, David.

    Not the Mother of God.
    </font>[/QUOTE]Is he "God"? Yes or no. Simple.

    Human Silly Syllogism
    Inquisitors question. I firmly believe Jesus is God, but do not call Mary as Mother of God, because if so, it cause misunderstanding as if I call Mary as Mother of God the Father and Mother of God the Holy Spirit. Even Mother of God the Son is not right because, she didn't exist before God the Son existed, but she was created by Son of God. She is not the mother for the fact that Son of God existed. She is neither mother of God the Father, nor Mother of God the Holy Spirit, nor the Mother of God the Son who created her.


    No one is disagreeing.

    Yes, it is silly comedy. It is also a silly strawman.

    Human concept of Lord is not connected with Pre-existence and Production while God is connected with Pre-existence and Creation.</font>[/QUOTE]I don't understand your answer, or what it has to do with my question. Can you answer more clearly? [/QB]</font>[/QUOTE]I already told you that
    Lord is used anywhere, without difference to the Pre-existence while God existed before anything else.

    Lord doesn't mean necessarily Creator but God always means Creator above all and of all things including Mary
     
  18. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Natters,

    Why are you so eager to call Mother of God, instead of Mother of Lord?

    Your answer will answer your question about the difference!
     
  19. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Natters I think I answered you enough. If you don't understand, please pray and think about it.

    Have you ever been born again?
    If you have been born-again, I am sure you can understand this very well.
     
  20. natters

    natters New Member

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    Thanks for the references, BobRyan. [​IMG]

    No, but that's the point! "mother" has more than the single meaning you're trying to pin us to!

    Many? who?
    </font>[/QUOTE]Anyone who wasn't "produced" by their mother. Like adopted children. As for "pre-existence", I do not know of any examples except Christ, but it's not an inherent requirement of the meaning of "mother", and it is conceivable that a woman becomes the "mother" (through adoption or marriage or other means) of someone older than her (for example, marrying a man who's first daughter is older than her, or adopting an older mentally ill woman still needing parental care).

    Human Silly Syllogism
    Inquisitors question.
    </font>[/QUOTE]It is neither. The answer is simply "yes".

    Lots of things cause misunderstandings. If it happens, you clear up the misunderstanding.

    Then why is "Mother of Lord" OK to you, if he was Lord before she existed???????

    Try again, in English? What does Lord mean in reference to Jesus? What did Elisabeth mean by "Lord" in reference to the babe in Mary's womb?

    Did Jesus exist as Lord before Mary existed? Yes. Did the meaning of Lord change for Jesus when he was born? No. Is Mary the mother of my Lord? Yes.
     
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