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Featured Rebuttal of an Article on Jn. 6:44 by Dr. Flowers

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by The Biblicist, Jan 17, 2019.

  1. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    “NO ONE CAN COME TO ME UNLESS THE FATHER WHO SENT ME DRAWS THEM, AND I WILL RAISE THEMUP AT THE LAST DAY.” – JOHN 6:44
    There are two basic ways to interpret this passage and it hinges on the words “draws” and “them.” Let’s look at the two renderings side by side:

    Calvinists: “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me *drags* them, and I will raise up *those who were dragged* at the last day.”

    Traditionalists: “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me *enables* them, and I will raise up *those who come* at the last day.”

    The Greek sentence structure allows for the author to be referencing “them” who come, not necessarily all those drawn. For instance if the sentence translated in English were structured in this manner the intention might be more obvious:

    “Only those drawn by the Father may come, and I will raise up them (those that come) at the last day.” - Dr. Leighton Flowers

    The first problem I have with the beginning of this article is an improper translation of the verse. Since, Bro. Flowers offers no source for his translation I can only speculate it is some kind of paraphrase translation.

    There is no plural "them..them" in the Majority Greek text nor is there any plural "those" in the Majority Greek text. The Greek text has the masculine accustive singular "autov" in both cases which is properly translated "him....him" by the KJV. The term he translates as "those" is the singular "oudeis" and literally means "no one" or "no man" since it is in the masculine gender.

    The second problem I have is his statement "The Greek sentence structure allows for the author to be referrencing 'them' who come, not necessarily all those drawn."

    Strictly speaking the nearest grammatical antecedent for the "him" of the second clause is the "him" in the first clause which is confined to only those drawn by the Father. The only other noun or pronoun is "oudeis" and that represents those who cannot come to Christ. Hence, the natural reading of the text and grammar defines "him" in the second clause not only to be restricted to "him" of the first clause but the very same "him" of the first clause. This is further inferred by the repeated use the very same final clause by Christ which is first used in John 6:39, then 6:40, then 6:44 and finally in 6:54. In all other cases the pronoun in that final clause is not only restricted to, but inclusive of ALL who have just been previously defined. For example, in John 6:39 the pronoun is restricted to but inclusive of "all" who are given as all given do not fail to come to Christ. In John 6:40 the pronoun in this clause refers to "all" (Gr. pas translated "everyone" but previously tranaslated "all") who believe and includes all who believe. The same is true in John 6:54. So, the very use of this clause both preceding Johnn 6:44 and after John 6:44 contradicts Bro. flowers interpretation.

    Not only so, but John 6:64-65 contradicts his interpretation. His whole position demands that drawing is universal in scope including "all men" without exception from Adam to the last human born on earth. John 6:64 explicitly states that Jesus knew that some of his disciples were never true believers and the reaso he gives is that it was not "given" to them by the Father. What was not "given" is what is included in the word "draw" in verse 64. Dr. Flowers demands that what is inclusive in the word "draw" in John 6:44 is given to all men without exception.

    Therefore, since coming to Christ in true faith must be "given" to them and it was not given to them by the Father then it follows that all to whom it is given do come to Christ by faith.

    Finally, every other use of the verbs Helko and Helkuo in the New Testament are found in the active voice as is the texts in question. This means that the object of the verb ("him") has no part in the action of the verbs but is wholly passive with regard to that action. Second, every other use of these verbs demonstrates drawing effectually and inseparably includes coming as what is being drawn in all other cases is also coming at one and the same time.
     
    #1 The Biblicist, Jan 17, 2019
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  2. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    To me, that is entirely consistent with salvation being presented as an offer ( as in "you do this and I will do that" ), instead of as a promise ( as in " I did this, and whoever believes shall be saved." ). In other words, the entire construct is built upon an offer, and what a person must do to avail themselves of it...believe.

    Contrast this with a Gospel that declares a set of facts, and the promise of eternal life to those who believe those facts from the heart; the benefits are not conditioned on belief, but on God's work of salvation resulting in belief. :)

    But I digress...

    Based on the language of John 6:44 in its entirety, if drawing were universal in scope, then all are saved because all are drawn and all will be raised up at the last day.

    Universal salvation.

    ...which I don't think he realized when he made the statement immediately above.

    To argue that drawing is universal, and then to say that "only those drawn by the Father may come, and I will raise up them (those that come) at the last day.", is to either contradict universal drawing, or to advocate universal salvation.

    One or the other.

    Probably because he conditions John 6:44 with what he sees in John 12:32... whereas I look at John 6:44, see that the ones drawn will be raised up at the last day ( meaning if everyone was drawn, as John 12:32 seems to state, then everyone will be raised up at the last day and enjoy the benefits of the first resurrection ) and confess that the Lord is being selective in John 6, starting with verse 29 and culminating with verse 65.

    Meaning that John 6:39, John 6:65 and John 17:2 agree with other Scriptures, like Isaiah 8:18, Matthew 13:11, Mark 4:11, Luke 8:10, John 3:27, 1 Corinthians 4:7, Philippians 1:29, and Hebrews 2:13, in that everything a believer haves is from God, including belief, and it's because they were given to His Son by the Father, who then drew them and caused them to come to Christ?

    I agree. :)

    That is what I see developed in John 6, and I posted something that I feel might be relevant to this in another thread:

    " No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day." ( John 6:44 )

    1) No man can come to Christ except the Father draw him.
    2) No man can come to Christ except the Father draw him.
    3) No man can come to Christ except the Father draw him.

    John 12:32 isn't about the same type of drawing that results in a person coming to Christ in belief, because the Father must do the drawing in order for someone to come to Him...they cannot both be doing the same type of drawing, because that would make Jesus a liar in John 12:32, IMO.


    May He bless you with many good things. :)
     
    #2 Dave G, Jan 17, 2019
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  3. percho

    percho Well-Known Member
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    Here is why I agree with the OP.

    And she conceived again, and bare a daughter. And God said unto him, Call her name Loruhamah: for I will no more have mercy upon the house of Israel; but I will utterly take them away. Then said God, Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your God. Hosea 1:6,9

    And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. Matt 1:21
    Now is my soul troubled; and what shall I say? Father, save me from this hour: but for this cause came I unto this hour. Father, glorify thy name. Then came there a voice from heaven, saying, I have both glorified it, and will glorify it again. Jesus answered and said, This voice came not because of me, but for your sakes. Now is the judgment of this world: now shall the prince of this world be cast out. And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me. John 12:27,28,30,31,32

    “Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him in your midst, as you yourselves also know—“Him, being delivered by the determined purpose and foreknowledge of God, you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death; “This Jesus God has raised up, of which we are all witnesses. “Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear. NKJV Acts 2:22,23,32,33

    Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God. Hosea 1:10


    Drawn and delivered to the Son.
     
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  4. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Leighton Flowers never seems to get it right.
    His quest to oppose the historic faith has failed as he gets every text wrong.
    His idea is to take a statement here and a statement there from various speakers out of context, and put them against each other.
    He avoids like the plague actually work through a passage as you men have done.
    His failed attempt at the Roman's 9 debate demonstrated this very thing.
    Now he goes on and on trying to replace scripture with philosophy as he used to post on here.
    Some of the archives have been hard to find where his error was pointed out, post after post.
     
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  5. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    The imperative mode and the indicative mode characterize all of these gospel narratives making them commands and/or declarations rather than propositions. We are commanded to repent, thus we are commanded to believe as repentance is inseparable from faith.

    All Biblical invitations are addressed to only those who already realize they are lost, sinners, burdened with sin, thirsty, willing and hungry.

    I guess we will just have to agree to disagree agreeably.
     
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  6. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    "ANOTHER EXAMPLE
    The confusion over John 6:44 can be clarified by applying the same interpretative principle to another similar sentence:

    “No one can join the Army unless they have been recruited, and those who have been recruited will be trained.”

    To use the Calvinistic interpretative method on this sentence would suggest that the Army only intended to recruit those who are eventually trained when clearly the Army attempts to recruit thousands who never actually join. The clear intention of this sentence is to presume the recruitment process lead to the joining and eventual training of those in view. Likewise, Jesus could simply be referring to those who do come as a result of God’s enabling. Given that at this time God has not completed His redemptive plan and sent the gospel to the Gentiles, it is safe to say He is not enabling all to come — yet." - Dr. Flowers

    This illustration supports my view not his view. First, note his word substitutions. He substitutes "come" for "join" and substitutes "draw" for "recruited" and substitutes "trained" for "raised up." Thus, "him" which "have been recruited"(drawn) are one and the same as "him" previously "recruited"(drawn) - this is both my point and the point of the Greek grammar that it is the same "him" drawn that has been raised up proving drawing is effectual in its consequence of coming rather than only potential or possible.

    Furthermore, the prophets Jesus cites proves Dr. Flowers illustration is not what Christ meant at all. He cites Isaiah 54:13 and Jeremiah 31:33-34 both of which assert that "all" will be taught of God and that "all" does not refer to a universal "all" but to "all" within the framework of the New Covenant where not one of that "all" fails to come to the knowledge of God and be his people and I quote:

    No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
    45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God
    . - Jn. 6:44-45a

    And all thy children shall be taught of the LORD; and great shall be the peace of thy children. - Isa. 54:13

    But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
    34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more
    .

    This is not an EXTERNAL drawing or teaching but an INTERNAL drawing and teaching that effectually brings them ALL to salvation - This same covenant is defined by Paul as the New Covenant in Hebrews 8 and 10:

    10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
    11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
    12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more
    . - Heb. 8:10-12
     
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  7. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    "DRAGGED
    Many Calvinists will appeal to the word helko (draw) in the original Greek, which can be understood as “to drag” as in a net of fish being dragged into the boat. But the word can also mean “to lead” or “draw” (see Thayer’s Greek Lexicon).

    Even if one were to accept the rendering of the term “helko” to mean “effectually cause” as in “to drag,” the text still does not say enough to necessitate a Calvinistic reading. One could be compelled to come to Christ while he was “down from heaven,” (v. 38) as was Judas (v. 71), without necessarily being saved. Jesus told those who came to Him that they must “count the cost to be his disciple” (Lk 14:25-34) and some who came only followed Him temporarily. One must presume that “coming to Christ” is equivalent to effectual salvation in order to support a Calvinistic interpretation." - Dr. Flowers

    The facts are, if we temporarily set aside the disputed texts (Jn. 6:44, 65; 12:32) every other use by New Testament writers demands that drawing and coming stand in a cause consequence relationship that are inseparable and simeltaneous with each other. In direct contrast, Dr. Flowers has no text, no example that supports his view that it merely means non-effectual leaderhip or influence - NONE!

    Second, nowhere does the Bible say Judas was ever drawn by the Father but explicitly places him in the group of unbelievers that Jesus says were never drawn by the Father and I quote:

    But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
    65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you, that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father
    . - Jn. 6:64-65

    Finally, we don't have to assume that coming to Christ as properly defined by Christ is "effectual salvation" because Christ explicitly says it is and denies that mere profession makes it so:

    All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
    38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
    39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day
    .

    Dr. Flowers confuses the biblical definition of coming to Christ with mere profession that one has come to Christ. In the context of John 6 the phrase "cometh to me" always refers to actual salvation and not mere profession as those who make a false profession of being a disciple of Christ have never been drawn (Jn. 6:64-65) by the Father and thus have never come to Christ in saving faith at all.
     
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  8. utilyan

    utilyan Well-Known Member
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    ' "cometh to me" always refers to actual salvation"

    That is what your trying to sell.

    John 6

    37“All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will certainly not cast out.

    39“This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.




    John 17

    12“While I was with them, I was keeping them in Your name which You have given Me; and I guarded them and not one of them perished but the son of perdition, so that the Scripture would be fulfilled.

    It would be argued that more would be damned then just Judas.

    Also:

    Judas was given.

    All given come.

    None who came were cast out.

    Judas cast himself out.




    You need to separate the possibility in John 6 he is only talking about his apostles.

    You need actual bible verse that says "COME TO ME" = SAVED.


    In John 6 The holy spirit has not saved anyone. None of the apostles in John 6 have received the holy spirit


    John 6

    27“Do not work for the food which perishes, but for the food which endures to eternal life, which the Son of Man will give to you, for on Him the Father, God, has set His seal.”

    Someone forgot to let Jesus know there is no working for eternal life.



    And finally the universal brick wall vs Calvinism. The COMMAND OF GOD.

    Is it a sin not to come to Jesus?

    God COMMANDS ALL to LOVE GOD and LOVE NEIGHBOR.


    If to my face God declares he commands ALL MANKIND not to sin, would I be insane, unreasonable, for having the tiniest spark, the smallest inkling ,a far fetched suspicion that he DESIRES and WANTS all mankind not to sin?

    I get this tiny and crazy impression that when a person SINS they are not doing what God wants them to do.
     
  9. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Judas never was saved....
     
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  10. utilyan

    utilyan Well-Known Member
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    Exactly. He came to Jesus. So coming to Jesus assures nothing.

    "All that the Father gives Me will come to Me,"

    " I was keeping them in Your name which You have given Me; and I guarded them and not one of them perished but the son of perdition, so that the Scripture would be fulfilled."

    Not one of them perished BUT <-- Now suppose JUDAS was never given, came, chosen, or guarded why mention Judas along with those that prevailed at all? Why not mention Ceasar or pagan Jack or better not mention anyone under the protection of Jesus?

    Instead in one breath he tells you he guarded and not one of them perished BUT Judas.

    70Jesus answered them, “Did I Myself not choose you, the twelve, and yet one of you is a devil?” 71Now He meant Judas the son of Simon Iscariot, for he, one of the twelve, was going to betray Him..

    Finally common sense and the epitome of BETRAYAL.

    It is not BETRAYAL when you send a spy or infiltrator to attack the enemy, They disguise themselves, act like friends when they are not, its their job description.

    What makes BETRAYAL a BETRAYAL is they HAVE TO BE ON YOUR SIDE and then stab you in the back.

    It tells you Judas was going to betray him. Well the claim is he was a enemy all a long. No he was friend of Jesus, chosen of Jesus and later he was going to betray Jesus.
     
  11. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    ALL 11 Jesus chose were saved, so its the will of God that permits us to even be able to receive Jesus!
     
  12. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    In the entire context of John 6 the words "cometh unto me" when used by Christ always refers to genuine faith in Christ. Judas is also mentioned in this context as one who claimed to be a disciple of Christ but never came to Christ in the sense Christ uses these words but is explicitly placed among the false believers (Jn. 6:64) of whom the Father never gave them ability to come to Christ i the genuine sense.

    And, no, that is not what I'm trying to sell but that is the indisputable fact of this particular context. In this context came to Christ in faith for miracles (Jn. 6:2) and for power (v. 15) and for "food" (v. 26) but none came to Christ in true faith for salvation as that is not possible outside those given to the Son for that purpose, and that act of giving occurred prior to the incarnation (vv. 38-39). In this context, Judas is grouped among false believers and considered a demon from the beginning.



    Judas was "given" to Christ for another purpose than salvation - "perdition" Judas was given for another purpose "apostleship" but not salvation as holder of offices does not secure personal salvation.







    Not true at all! John 6 is universal in its scope "NO MAN can come to me" - Jn. 6:44

    John 6;35 proves coming to Christ and believing are synonymous in this context:

    And Jesus said unto them, I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst. - Jn. 6:35

    The two underlined phrases are paralllel truths first literally stated then metaphorially stated.

    You are confusing the baptism in the Spirit with regeneration by the Spirit. New Birth is taught 3 chapters previous to chapter 6 and Nicodemus is rebuked for failing to understand it, which could hardly be the case if it were not a present truth - and it was and it was taught throughout the Old Testament under different metaphors (circumcision of the heart - Ezek. 44:7-9).


    Again, you are ignoring contextual definitions. The "work" in question was efforts in following Christ over the sea and seeking him out for mere food. He is saying if you are going to seek me out then do it for what God "GIVES" which is eternal life not what you can EARN. Do you know the difference between a gift and a wage earned?
     
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  13. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    "Cometh to me" always refers to believing on Christ, at least in John 6:

    " But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.
    37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
    38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
    39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
    40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day."
    ( John 6:36-40 )

    In verse 36, Jesus declares to the Jews that He was speaking to ( that came looking for Him in verse 24 ( not shown here ) ), that they had seen Him, but had not believed on Him.
    He then makes this statement:

    " All that the Father gives me shall come to me, and him that comes to me I will in no wise cast out."

    So, everyone that His Father gives to Him shall come to Him...everyone.
    What is it to "come to Jesus"?
    The answer is found in verse 40:

    " This is the will of Him that sent me, that every one which sees the Son, and believes on Him, may have everlasting life and I will raise Him up at the last day."

    To "come to Him" is the same as to believe on Him.

    How can anyone "see" the Son, when He is risen and ascended to the right hand of God the Father ( Mark 16:19 )?
    They "see" Him, spiritually, as their Saviour, through the preaching of the Gospel and the power of the Holy Ghost.
    When a person "sees" Christ in the preaching of the Gospel, that person recognizes Him as their one and only hope...their Saviour.

    Key take-aways from this passage:

    Verse 36 = A person can see Christ in the flesh, and not believe on Him as their Saviour.
    Verse 37 = All that the Father gives to Christ shall come to Him.
    Verse 38 = Christ came down from Heaven to do His Father's will, not His own will. He was submitted to the will of God the Father in everything.
    Verse 39 = Jesus then tells us part of what His Father's will for Him was...that of all which He had given to Jesus, Christ would lose nothing ( that's "eternal security" for those who have trouble believing this ), but should raise it up again at the last day ( see John 6:44 ).
    Verse 40 = Jesus tells us another part of His Father's will...that everyone which sees the Son ( wait a second, the Jews in verse 36 had seen Him and had not believed, so what is it to "see" Him? ) and believes on Him may have everlasting life, and...He repeats what He said in verse 39; They will be raised up at the last day.

    That is what the passage states.

    See the above.
    Understanding of the Scripture in John 6, will give you the answer.
    "Come to me" = "Believed on Him", which equals "saved".
    Everyone that truly believes on Christ is saved.

    I agree.
    Judas was chosen so that Scripture would be fulfilled ( John 17:12 ).
    Who was Judas?

    " Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?" ( John 6:70 )


    Not a child of God, but a child of the Devil ( 1 John 3:10 ).

    Please see John 13:12-30 for more details regarding who Judas was, as well as Psalms 41:9, Matthew 26:20-25, John 17:11-12.

     
    #13 Dave G, Jan 18, 2019
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  14. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    There is no "universal brick wall" against the Bible...

    One either understands it, or they do not.
    The command of God is the command of God.
    All men are fully responsible to obey their Creator.

    Is it a sin not to come to Jesus?
    Yes ( John 16:8-11 ).

    Then how does a person get out from under committing this sin?
    They don't.
    God does it.
    He chooses someone, and they then "see" Christ at some point in their life during the preaching of the Gospel ( because God reveals Himself to whom He will...Matthew 11:27, Luke 10:22 ) and they then believe on Him.

    In other words, there is no remedy for our sins, except to receive the gift of eternal life from God, who gives it to whomever He wishes; Not to whomever we wish ( John 1:13 ).



    God commands all to love Him and to love their neighbor...yet, none will actually do this apart from God changing a person's heart.:)
     
    #14 Dave G, Jan 18, 2019
    Last edited: Jan 18, 2019
  15. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    It's a technicality that I'm expressing.
    To me, salvation is an "offer", but not in the "let's make a deal" sense.
    It's the promise of eternal life given only to those that believe on His Son.

    How does one realize that they are sinners, burdened with sin, thirsty, etc.?
    God draws them ( John 6:44 ). :)
     
  16. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Sure! But how do you define "draw"? If you interpret it as universal than the scriptures Jesus references in John 6:45 repudiates that idea and John 6:64-65 repudiates that idea. If you interpret simply as "influence" but not inseparable from coming in faith to Christ as the direct simelataneous consequence then provide any use of it outside the debated two passages that will support that view.
     
  17. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    I understand "draw" as God the Father, through the Holy Ghost, pulling or "dragging" a person to Him.
    That means that they experience the desire to sit in front of His word.

    It is not universal, because no man seeks God ( Romans 3:10-18 ), and everyone that is drawn will come, and everyone that comes, will be raised up at the last day.
     
  18. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    I completely understand your view. However, that is not the view of Christ and it can be shown clearly what view Christ held by the prophets he quoted to explain his view in John 6:45. He is citing Isaiah 54;13 and Jeremiah 31:33-34 which describes an internal work of God that writes his law upon their hearts effectually bringing them to faith in "ALL" he draws in this manner. "ALL" drawn in this manner are called "ALL thy children" (Isa. 54:13) under the new covenant (Jer. 31:33-34/Heb. 10:8-13)

    So, this drawing is the INTERNAL WORK of God ALONE as no one can operate inside of man (Jer.31:33) and it is always effectual in bringing them to faith in God (Jer. 31:34) ALL of them "from the least of them to the greatest of them".

    So, Jesus is continuing to talk about "ALL" that the Father had given him in John 6:37-39 as only these become willing to believe on him (Jn. 6:40) because the Father draw them (Jn. 6:44) in the manner described by the prophets (Jn. 6:45; Isa. 54:13; Jer. 31:33-34) which are the New Covenant children (Isa. 54:13; Jer. 31:31-34 with Heb. 8:10-13) and those in John 6:36 and 6:64 were never given to the Son by the Father and never drawn by the Father (Jn. 6:65).
     
  19. Dave G

    Dave G Well-Known Member

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    Believe it or not, I actually agree with you.
    As in other threads, I think we're talking around each other.;)
     
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  20. Iconoclast

    Iconoclast Well-Known Member
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    Using your ideas, maybe jn3:5 is only spoken to Nicodemus.
    He is a man,so Jesus did say to him except a man be born again....so
     
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