Featured Rebuttal of an Article on Jn. 6:44 by Dr. Flowers

Ezekiel 44:7-9 demonstrates the new birth was required by God prior to John 3:3. Nicodemus was rebuked by Christ for his ignorance about new birth. Jesus used the metaphor of birth to more easily convey the same truth which previously was conveyed by the metaphors of circumcision and ceremonial washing.

 

But I said unto you, That ye also have seen me, and believe not.
37 All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.
38 For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.
39 And this is the Father’s will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
41 The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which came down from heaven.
42 And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, I came down from heaven?
43 Jesus therefore answered and said unto them, Murmur not among yourselves.
44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.

In John 6:36-40 Christ asserts that those Jews who sought him for food, "have seen" him but believed not (v. 36) but ALL the Father gives him "shall come to me" and not one that The father giveth shall fail to come to him and not one that comes shall fail to be saved (vv. 37-39) but every single one of them shall come to him in faith. This is indisputable as the text clearly demands the same “ALL” given equals the same “ALL” that come equals the same “ALL” saved.
Let us first explore the relationship between the act of the Father in giving with the act of coming in faith to Christ.

The Father’s act of giving precedes the act of coming by all the Father gives. In verse 37 “giveth” is present tense while “shall come” is future tense proving the action of giving precedes the action of coming. However, by how much time does God’s action of giving occur prior to the action of Coming. That is answered in verses 38-39. In verses 38-39 the action of giving precedes Christ’s act of incarnation as Christ says that his coming down in heaven (v. 38) was in response to the Father already having “given” (v. 39) such to the Son. Christ uses the perfect tense translated “have given” in verse 39 demonstrating the act of giving by the Father stood as a completed action that stood completed at the time Christ descended from heaven. This places the Father’s act of giving not only prior to the action of “all” these coming to Christ in faith, but prior to the incarnation. How long before the incarnation? The Father cannot give a definite “all” unless he first choose them out from all others so giving is consequential to choosing and choosing refers to the elect “from before the foundation of the world” (Eph.1:4). Indeed, the “elect” are the only people designated prior to the incarnation where “ALL” will be saved. If you think not, then provide chapter and verse for any all designated people prior to the incarnation that “ALL” will be saved???

Moreover, because giving precedes the action of coming, therefore COMING TO HIM CANNOT BE THE CAUSE FOR HAVING BEEN GIVEN TO HIM AS TAUGHT BY THOSE WHO TEACH THAT GOD'S FOREKNOWLEDGE IS MERE FORESIGHT OF FUTURE ACTIONS (COMING TO CHRIST BY FAITH). Instead, foreknowledge is based on previous action by God in the form of eternal purpose as this is the precise order given by Paul in Romans 8:28-29. God works all things according to his eternal purpose (v. 28) and there God knows before hand all that will occur not due to foresight but due to purpose (v. 29).

Now, lets consider the contextual relationship between “all” those given by the Father in verses 37-39 and “all” who will be taught of God in verse 45. Are they the same “all”? Verse 45 is given as an explanation of what another work of God means (“draw”) in verse 44. In verses 37-39 we have the certainty that ALL given will ALL come to Christ and will ALL be saved. However, verses 37-39 does not provide us with HOW that will be accomplished and made certain.

First, the final phrase in John 6:44 is first found in verses 39-40 which would demonstrate Jesus is continuing to speak about the very same people (all given by the Father who all come and all be saved). Second, the prophets quoted by Jesus in verse 45 are Isaiah 54:13 and Jeremiah 31:33-34 as an explanation for what it means that “ALL” will be taught by God. Those in Isaiah 54:13 are identified as “ALL thy children” rather than all of mankind. Moreover, according to Jeremiah that very same “ALL” are effectually taught by God so that ALL come to know God and ALL become the people of God “from the least of them unto the greatest” of this same “ALL” so not one of that “ALL” perish. Jeremiah 31:31-34 is quoted by Paul in Hebrews 8:10-13 and in Hebrews 10 as descriptive of the “new” covenant and thus descriptive of ALL the new covenant people of God.

Second, “no man can come” apart from this second work of God (first work described as giving) - v.44. Hence, verses 44-45 describes the divine work of the Father that explains HOW all given by the Father effectually come to the Son so that not one of that ALL “shall perish.”

Third, we have examples provided by Christ of those who were never given and never drawn by the Father proving once again that “ALL” refers to a restricted number of mankind.

For example, those Jews described in verse 36 are said to “have seen” Christ but never come to him in faith whereas in immediate direct contrast to them, (vv. 37-39) “ALL” the Father gives do effectually come to Christ and be saved and so, they cannot be part of that “ALL” who are given because all given come. Thus, they cannot be part of those who see and believe in verse 40 as the only ones who see and believe in Christ are part of that same “all” given in verses 37-39. Those described in verse 40 are those given to him by the Father that shall not be lost in verse 39 as the final clause in verse 39 is repeated as the final clause in verse 40 demonstrating that the “anyone” (Gr. pas = “all”) are the same “all” described in verses 37-39. Hence, Jesus is telling those in verse 36 of whom he said "saw and believe not" that they are not part of those given to him by the Father as "ALL" given by the Father to him do see and do believe.

For example, those professed believers described in John 6:64 cannot be part of “all” given in John 6:37-39 or “all” taught (drawn) by the Father in John 6:44-45 because they remained in unbelief “from the beginning” proving their confession was false because Jesus gives as the reason their continuing in unbelief to be “ except it” (the Father’s work in drawing or effectually enabling) had never “given” unto them (v. 65). Again, proving that the work of the Father giving and drawing are not universal in nature but restrictive to the elect (those given the Son from the foundation of the world).

Therefore, Jesus the very same “all” Jesus speaks about in verses 37-40 is the very same “all” he continues to speak about in verses 44-45 and 65. In verses 37-39 and verses44-45 he is describing what he calls the “work of God” in verse 29 that is necessary to bring the covenant people to God by coming in faith to Jesus Christ. So, John 6:44-45 explains HOW God brings them to faith in Christ, while verses 37-39 declare God’s purpose that they will all come to faith in Christ and not be lost because Christ came down to fulfill that revealed purpose of God.
So, John 6 restricts it to the covenant people of God through the covenant work of God.

However, the Jews would interpret that is being restricted to Jews only or an ethnic covenant that excludes Gentiles. Acts 10-15 proves this was a real problem even among the churches as they thought Gentiles had to become Jews. Therefore, in John 12:20-32 Jesus does not deny it is restricted to the covenant people of God but denies this work is restricted to Jews only or is only an ethnic work of God.

Certain “Greeks” came to see Jesus which caused a commotion among the disciples of Christ because as Peter later says it was unlawful for Jews to fellowship with Gentiles (Acts 10:39). It is from this back drop of INCLUSION OF GENTILES into fellowship with Jewish believers and Christ that John 6:32 applies. Jesus said that he would draw “all men” to him. This phrase in the Greek text is without the definite article and may legitimately be understood to mean “all kinds/classes of men.”

So, Jesus is not being inconsistent with his restrictive use of “all” in John 6 with regard to both the giving and drawing work of God but is denying this work is further restricted to Jews only but inclusive to all races/classes/gender of mankind.

Thus, John 6:37-39 gives the eternal cause for coming to faith (divine election that gives them to the son) and gives the consequence in time “shall come to me” but John 6:44-45 identifies the work of God IN TIME that produces what God purpose and what we see as the effect.

 

The saving work of Christ preceded the cross. We have been talking about that faith or coming to Christ is the work of God giving and drawing them. Abraham is proof positive that this work of God producing faith preceded the cross. Hebrews 11 proves God's work of producing faith being the "author and finisher" (12:2) preceded the cross. The cross merely provided the legal basis, but God applied it according to promise that the legal basis would be provided.

 

If a born again man's will is impotent to overcoming indwelling sin (Rom. 7:18) but God must work in the regenerate person "both to will and to do of His good pleasure" than how in the world can unregenerate "will" or "do" what a regenerate man cannot do?????

Accountability to do something versus ability are two different things. If man is the cause of his inability that does not mean he is not still legally accountable.

So many of the tensions in scripture that command sinners to do what they have no ability to do are not contradictions nor make God unjust as sinners are accountable for their own inability and equally accountable to do what they are not able to do.