Featured How To scripturally Determine the Mind of God on the Modern Practice of Paraphrasing His Words

Have I told you what you think re scripture, NO. What you have done a number of times is suggest that only the KJV is a valid translation but as yet you have not said which version of the KJV you think is the correct one.

 

You do not practice what you preach. You seem to keep wildly and inaccurately guessing what others believe, and you keep improperly trying to put words in their mouth and mind that they do not state and do not believe.

This thread seems to be intended to get others to defend something that they have not advocated. This thread seems to be based on a bogus, strawman misrepresentation that does not present accurately what non-KJV-only believers believe.

 

Do you consider the word of God translated into English in the 1537 Matthew's Bible to be living?

Do you consider the word of God translated into English in the 1560 Geneva Bible to be living?

 

Since I believe that the bible is the word of God and you say you have a different view than I do what does that say about you?

Do you think that those of us that do not use the KJV do not know what the bible says or lack understanding?

For someone that tells me I should not guess what you believe you sure do a great deal of guessing about what others believe. And seem to think you know how God wants His word spread.

 

Hebrews 4:12, ". . . For the worde of god is quycke and myghty in operacion and sharper then eny two edged swearde: and entreth through even vnto the dividynge asonder of the soule and the sprete and of the ioyntes and the mary: and iudgeth the thoughtes and the intentes of the herte: . . ."

Hebrews 4:12, ". . . For the worde of God is liuely, and mightie in operation, & sharper then any two edged sword, and entreth through, euen vnto the diuiding asunder of the soule and the spirit, and of the ioints, and the marow, and is a discerner of the thoughtes, and the intents of the heart. . . .'

1 Peter 1:23, ". . . for ye are borne a newe not of mortall seed but of immortall by the worde of god which liveth and lasteth for ever. . . ."

1 Peter 1:23, ". . . Being borne anewe, not of mortall seede, but of immortall, by the woorde of God, who liueth and endureth for euer. . . ."

 

My preferred English Bible translation--the KJV has some dynamic equivalent renderings according to what KJV-only advocates have identified as being dynamic equivalence, and it provides no English rendering for some original-language words of Scripture and adds many English words for which it has no original-language words of Scripture.

Do you apply your own stated measures/standards consistently and justly including to the KJV?

According to scriptural truth, the same measures/standards should be applied consistently and justly. The use of any unrighteous divers weights, unequal or false balances, inconsistent divers measures, unfair or untrue judgments, or double standards in evaluating, judging, trying, or comparing original language manuscript copies of Scripture [likewise printed original language texts and translations] would be wrong according to a consistent, sound application of scriptural truths and principles (Prov. 16:11, 20:10, 11:1, 20:23, Deut. 25:13-15, Ezek. 45:10, Lev. 19:35-36, Amos 8:5, Ps. 82:2, Lev. 19:15, Luke 16:10, Matt. 7:2, John 7:24, Lev. 10:10, Ps. 58:1, Deut. 16:18-20, Ps. 19:7-9).

 

Can you prove that the bible you use, KJV, is God inspired. You seem to place a great deal of trust in a version that has gone through so many revisions and corrections.