Featured John 3:16 interpetative translation

I noticed a "Snip" in my posts-what is that?

My post clarified what I believe-maybe you should look at the Hebrew and LXX and see how unbelievers 'agapao-ed?"

I gave you examples @Van-
Johann.

 

This is not edifying-here are examples I have given.


Mathew 5:46–Jesus says, “If you “agapao” those who “agapao” you, what reward do you have? Do not even the tax collectors do the same?” You see, here the word “agapao” is used with reference to sinners in a profane way.

Same is true in the parallel passage of Luke 6:32. The idea of unselfish unconditional love does not hold here.

Luk 6:32 και ει αγαπατε τους αγαπωντας υμας ποια υμιν χαρις εστιν και γαρ οι αμαρτωλοι τους αγαπωντας αυτους αγαπωσιν

Luke 11:43–The term “agapao” is used in reference to the supreme seats in the synagogue with no meaning of “unconditional.”

John 3:19–Here it is recorded that men “agapao’d” the darkness rather than the light. Can this be an unconditional love?

John 12:43–Men “agapao’d” the approval of men rather than the approval of God. This is clearly not unselfish.

2 Tim. 4:10–Demas “agapao’d” the present age (referring to the worldly ungodly values). This cannot be the traditionally godly love.

1 John 2:15–The apostle tells us that we should not “agapao” the world. Here it is again a profane/worldly kind of love.

2 Peter 2:15–Even Balaam and the false prophets “agapao” the wages of unrighteousness. Here the word “agapao” is used with reference to false prophets.

The same interchangeability is also true of the word “phileo” throughout the New Testament. A few examples will suffice:

John 5:20–The Father “phileo” the Son. Here the intra-Trinitarian love between the members of the trinity is described as “phileo.”

John 16:27–The Father “phileo” the disciples who “phileo” God. God’s love here is a “phileo” love in both directions.

1 Corinthians 16:22– Anyone who does not “phileo” Jesus is acursed!

Revelation 3:19–The risen Christ loves His disciples with a “phileo” love.

The two words are also used interchangeably together also. Here a few examples:

As I mentioned above, Luke 11:43 says that the Pharisees would “agapao” the chief seats in the synagogue, while Matthew 23:6 says that they “phileo” those places of honor; moreover, the Pharisees “phileo’d” to be seen praying on street corners (Matthew 6:5). Therefore both words have been used with reference to these seats of power.

God loves Jesus with both kinds of love. In John 3:35 and 15:9, says that the Father loves Him, the word used is the verb “agapao”. Yet John 5:20 speaks of the Father’s “phileo” love for the Son.

In John 11:5 we are told that Jesus “agapao’d” Lazarus, yet a few verses later in the same chapter (11:36) we are told that He “phileo’d” Lazarus.

In John 17:23, the Father loves the disciples with “agapao” love; but in John 16:27, Jesus tells the disciples that the Father loves them with “phileo” love.

In John 20:2 it is written that John is the disciple whom Jesus phileo’d, and just a few verses later, in 21:20 John calls himself the disciple whom Jesus agapao’d.

Therefore, the word “phileo” can be seen in contexts which “agapao” would be expected to occur if the traditional definitions are correct. However, the use of “phileo” in these contexts renders such traditional views as unlikely at least and erroneous at best.

What is this debate about? "Basically synonymous" Why don't you look up the Scripture references and see for yourself?

We need to come out of our Western mindset and reread the Scriptures with an Eastern lens-not being facetious.

Shalom Achi
Johann.

 

I think it is a serious claim to say-"I have rebutted all the false claims and supplied actual specific definitions for agapao and phileo."

To be honest-you have rebutted nothing and I still hold my position-that Phileo and Agape is basically
synonymous.

ahavah, chesed, and rachamim. Do a basic search on these words, their etymologies etc. Also the Morphologies and Syntax.

I am well aware of the meaning of these words in Dictionaries and Lexicons yet gave you many Scripture references that UNBELIEVERS agapao-ed-how do you reconcile that?

What do you mean by "non-responsive?" I have given you crystal clear examples-from Scripture-not dictionaries-.

LOVE (agapē)

There are several words translated into English as "love" from Koinē Greek.

philia - devoted friendship
storgē- strong, loyal family love (cf. Rom. 12:10)
eros - sexual love
mania - obsessive love
lodos - playful love
pragma - long term love
agapē -
Agapē was a rarely used root in classical Greek. The NT

authors took this known but unused term and filled it with new meaning. It came to denote God's self-giving, no-strings-attached, covenant love. It is theologically parallel to the Hebrew hesed (see SPECIAL TOPIC: LOVINGKINDNESS).

The Septuagint (LXX) chose agapē to translate several Hebrew words for "love." The LXX was the Bible for the early church. This root becomes the one used for theological discussion. Paul highlights this term in his writings. It was the love of God and Christ which was the main theological assertion of all his theology. His beautiful discussion on "love" in 1 Corinthians 13 is a classic!

God's love for mankind is fully seen in His sending Jesus (cf. John 3:16; Rom. 5:8; 2 Cor. 5:21). This love is mandated in the Great Commission of the early church (cf. Matt. 28:18-20; Luke 24:46-47; Acts 1:8). The letter of 1 John fully developes this evangelistic mandate into the life of the local church (esp. 1 John 4).

Self-giving love becomes the marker of true, mature Christianity. The influence of the Fall (cf Genesis 3) is fully reversed in NT salvation.


LOVINGKINDNESS (hesed)

This term hesed (BDB 338 I, KB 336 II) has a wide semantic field.

Used in connection to human beings
kindness to fellow men (e.g., 1 Sam. 20:14; 2 Sam. 16:17; 2 Chr. 24:22; Job 6:14; Ps. 141:5; Pro. 19:22; 20:6)
kindness toward the poor and needy (e.g., Micah 6:8)
affection of Israel toward YHWH (cf. Jer. 2:2; Hos. 6:4,6)
the temporary beauty of a wild flower (cf. Isa. 40:6)

Used in connection to God
covenant loyalty and love
"in redemption from enemies and troubles" (e.g., Gen. 19:19; 39:21; Exod. 15:13; Ps. 31:16; 32:10; 33:18,22; 36:7,10; 42:8; 44:26; 66:20; 85:7; 90:14; 94:18; 107:8,15,21,31; 109:21-22; 143:8,12; Jer. 31:3; Ezra 7:28; 9:9)
"in preservation of life from death" (e.g., Job 10:12; Ps. 6:4-5; 86:13)
"in quickening of spiritual life" (e.g., Ps. 119:41,76,88,124,149,159)
"in redemption from sin" (cf. Ps. 25:7; 51:1; 130:7-8)
"in keeping the covenants" (e.g., Deut. 7:9,12; 2 Chr. 6:14; Neh. 1:5; 9:32; Dan. 9:4; Mic. 7:20)
describes a divine attribute (e.g., Exod. 34:6; Ps. 86:15; 103:8; Neh. 9:17; Joel 2:13; Jonah 4:2; Micah 7:20; see SPECIAL TOPIC: CHARACTERISTICS OF ISRAEL'S GOD, OT)
kindness of God
"abundant" (e.g., Num. 14:18; Neh. 9:17; Ps. 86:5; 103:8; 145:8; Joel 2:13; Jer. 4:2)
"great in extent" (e.g., Exod. 20:6; Deut. 5:10; 7:9)
"everlasting" (e.g., 1 Chr. 16:34,41; 2 Chr. 5:13; 7:3,6; 20:21; Ezra 3:11; Ps. 100:5; 106:1; 107:1; 118:1,2,3,4,29; 136:1-26; 138:8; Jer. 33:11)
like a stronghold (e.g., Ps. 59:17)
related to God's power (e.g., Ps. 62:11c-12a)
deeds of kindness (e.g., 2 Chr. 6:42; Ps. 89:2; Isa. 55:3; 63:7; Lam. 3:22)
This word is translated many ways in English translations. I think the best summary definition would be "God's no-strings-attached covenant loyalty." In this sense, it is parallel to the NT term "love" (agapaō). God is faithful and loving because of who He is!

Thus says one Baptist to another Baptist.
J.

 

24 But he answered and said, I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15

For God so loved His arrangement that He gave His only begotten Son, so that every one who is believing in him shall not perish in the wrath soon to come but have everlasting life.

John 3:16 is a statement of fact, NOT an invitation.

Acts Of The Apostles 2:40

Acts Of The Apostles 3:23

Revelation 18:4

Luke 13:1-5

 

Romans 10:13.

 

Jesus did.

 

The Prophet had nothing for the Gentiles, He came only to the Jews at the end of their world.

 

Who is the Kohelet to Ha-Goyim?
Thanks
J.

 

Primarily:
Galatians 1:15-17

Also:
Acts Of The Apostles 11:7

Important to remember:
Galatians 2:9

 

24 But he answered and said, I was not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Mt 15

Gill:
"...as a priest, or as a Saviour and Redeemer, he was sent to make satisfaction and atonement for the sins of all God's elect, and to obtain eternal redemption and salvation for all of them, whether Jews or Gentiles; but as a prophet, in the discharge of his own personal ministry, he was sent by his Father only to the Jews; he was the "minister of the circumcision", Romans 15:8..."

 

15:24 "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel"

Remember Jesus helped other Gentiles, but within the geographical boundaries of the Promised Land. If Jesus had begun a healing ministry in a Gentile land, He would have been rejected by the Jewish populous in general because of their prejudices. The phrase "lost sheep of the house of Israel" shows the spiritual condition of the Jewish people (cf. Matt. 10:6; 9:36).

The "shepherding" imagery began in Num. 27:17 (cf. Zech. 10:2). Psalm 23; 78:52; Isa. 40:11; Jer. 31:10 depict YHWH as the Shepherd of Israel. This imagery becomes Messianic in Micah 5:2; Zech. 11:4-17; and John 10:1-10. The bad shepherds are contrasted with the good shepherd in Ezekiel 34.

Sheep needed constant care and protection. They were helpless, defenseless, and easily influenced animals! Calling God's people sheep is not a compliment, but a spiritual reality!

Could I make one more comment on the word "only"! Jesus helped this needy Gentile, as He did several other Gentiles. These are foreshadowings of His worldwide goal (cf. Matt. 28:18-20; Luke 24:46-47; Acts 1:8). The Messiah came for all humans made in God's image (cf. Gen. 1:26-27). Genesis 3:15 is not a promise to Israel, but to humans. The call of Abraham included a concern for Gentiles (cf. Gen. 12:3). The giving of the law on Mt. Sinai included God's concern for the world (cf. Exod. 19:5)!

15:26 "dogs" This is the only use of this term in the NT. Its harshness is diminished by the fact that it is diminutive in form, "puppies" (JB, "house-dogs"). The Jews called the Gentiles "dogs." This dialogue was intended to help the disciples overcome their prejudice against Gentiles. Jesus recognized and publicly affirmed that her faith was great (cf. Matt. 15:28)!

15:27 "crumbs" People often used bread to wipe their hands after eating.

15:28 "O woman, your faith is great" Jesus complimented Gentiles several times (cf. Matt. 8:10). This was to:

show His love for Gentiles
stimulate the disciples' global worldview