By Faith

We can find a boat load of verses containing the phrase "by faith." This thread's focus is only on the cases where "faith" is not preceded by an article or preposition, and the Greek noun translated as "by faith" is in the "dative" case. All these "by faith" translation choices seem based on the conclusion that the "dative" was an Instrumental of Means usage. Thus the action of the verb was accomplished by means of faith.

For "faith" to accomplish anything by the person having said faith means that their faith is live faith, not dead faith. For "faith" to accomplish anything by God, either the reference is to a person's credited faith or Christ's faithfulness in sacrificing His life.

Lets look at a few verses:
Acts of the Apostles 15:9 (NASB)
and He made no distinction between us and them, cleansing their hearts by faith.

Here the verb is "cleansing" and the action is being carried out by God, so the difficulty is in determining whether Christ's faithfulness is in view or the individuals credited faith is in view. We find the answer in verse 11, the salvation (cleansing of their heart) is through the grace of Jesus, thus Christ's faithfulness is in view.

And on the other hand we find:
Acts of the Apostles 26:18 (NASB)
to open their eyes so that they may turn from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and an inheritance among those who have been sanctified by faith in Me.’

Here the verb is "sanctified" and God's action is to set the person apart into Christ. And the faith is the person's credited faith in Christ.

The last verse of this post is Romans 3:28:
For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from works of the Law.

Here again the action is by God (justification) based on crediting the person's faith as righteousness.

 

Here is the NASB rendering of Hebrews 11:29:

By faith they passed through the Red Sea as through dry land; and the Egyptians, when they attempted it, were]drowned.​

First, in the Greek text, "faith" is not preceded by a preposition, i.e. not "to" and not "by," thus "faith" has been translated as a dative (Instrumental of means).

Second, the verse does not say the Egyptians attempted to cross "by faith."

Third, the action to pass through was "by means" of their faith that God had provided an escape. Thus a "live" faith, not a dead faith.

To restate the OP premise, when people accomplish something "by faith" the faith is live faith, i.e. a faith from which faithful actions flow. For example, because we trust in God's promises, we carry out actions based on those promises.

 

Romans 5:2 (NASB)

through whom we also have obtained our introduction by faith into this grace in which we stand; and we celebrate in hope of the glory of God.​

Once again we see "by faith" as the translation choice of "faith" in the dative without a preceding article or preposition

Here we (those born anew in Christ) obtained entry into the grace of being (standing within) Christ. Thus the action is by God because we have no ability to change our spiritual location from being in the domain of darkness (in Adam) to being spiritually placed into Christ..

To tie it back together, note the end of the verse "in hope of the glory of God." Because we trust in God's promises, and the glory of God is in part because He keeps His promises, we celebrate in hope.

 

In Hebrews 11:3 we (born anew believers) understand God created the heavens and the earth by means of our live faith, thus we submit to His authority as creator, He is the potter, we are the clay.

In Hebrews 11:4 we see that Abel offered a better sacrifice than Cain by means of his live faith.

In Hebrews 11:5, we see that Enoch had pleased God by means of his live faith.

In Hebrews 11:7, we see that Noah not only prepared the Ark by means of his live faith, but also became an heir of righteousness, thus destined for Abraham's bosom and in the future to be made perfect and righteous after Christ's death.

 

On and on, post after post of non-germane verbiage.

Is Jesus the author and finisher of our faith? Yes. Is this at issue? Nope

The promise is given based on Christ's faithfulness to those whose faith is credited by God. Galatians 3:22

The phrase "justified by faith" is found at least 4 times in the NASB (Romans 3:28, Romans 5:1, Galatians 2:16, and Galatians 3:24).

In Romans 3:28) the Greek word faith has no preceding article or preposition, thus a dative (instrumental of means) so the idea is that people are justified by means of faith apart from the law. The entity taking the action is God, and His action is according to His grace of crediting the person's faith as righteousness. The action is to transfer the person spiritually into Christ, where they are made righteous by the washing of regeneration. No OT saint was made righteous in this manner until after Christ died.

In Romans 5:1 the Greek word translated "faith" is preceded by the preposition "ek," thus the idea is we have been justified based on our faith when credited by God. The entity taking the action is God, and His action is according to His grace of crediting the person's faith as righteousness. The action is to transfer the person spiritually into Christ, where they are made righteous by the washing of regeneration. No OT saint was made righteous in this manner until after Christ died.

In Galatians 2:16, the idea is we have believed so that we may be justified based on Christ's faithfulness of sacrificing His life. No OT Saint was justified in this manner until after Christ died.

In Galatians 3:24, the idea is that the function of the OT Law is to lead us to Christ so that we may be justified based on our credited faith. The entity taking the action is God, and His action is according to His grace of crediting the person's faith as righteousness. The action is to transfer the person spiritually into Christ, where they are made righteous by the washing of regeneration. No OT saint was made righteous in this manner until after Christ died.

 

Your question is unclear. Are you asking for scripture demonstrating being made righteous and being justified are the same thing?

Or, are you asking for scripture concerning what the washing of regeneration accomplishes?

And I have no idea what you believe.

For example if we are "saved" have we been made righteous and justified by the washing of regeneration? Yes or No?

If we have been reconciled (having received the reconciliation) have we been made righteous and justified by the washing of regeneration. Yes or No?

Why must we be born anew to enter heaven? Is it because being born anew means we have undergo the washing of regeneration? Yes or No?

Does being made alive together with Christ mean we are no long dead in our sins? Yes or No?

 

Can a person who has been regenerated, born anew, made alive still be dead in their trespasses.? No of course not. The idea is that we were spiritually dead, separated from God because we were made sinners, and additionally by our unholiness in thought and deed. However, being made alive "together with Christ" (Ephesians 2:5) requires that we are no longer "dead" and therefore the consequence of sin (death, separation) has been taken away. Thus the term "washing of regeneration" refers to being justified, and made righteous in our new birth as a new creature.