Featured Historical usage of Words reveals the Contextual Meaning

Your view, as I understand it, is the common understanding of the adoption.

I am persuaded, it is only the post resurrection of the saints, per Romans 8:23 and 1 John 3:2.

 

For starters, the Greek preposition "διά", originally in its root, means, "two, between", and "by the help or working of", "with one another", etc

Secondly, there are two "cases" where this preposition is used, either with the genitive, or the accusative.

Thirdly, there are instances where it is used in the genitive, where the "normal" use is "instrument", but the context in the Bible shows, that it is actually "origin".

Fourthly, there are also cases in the Bible, where this preposition is used in "cooperation", as in "working together"

you have oversimplified the preposition in the OP for the purpose of trying to make your points!

 

your OP has failed on the most important factor of our "faith", which the Bible clearly states "comes from the hearing of the Word of God" (Romans 10:17), which is the product of our hearing of the Gospel Message of Repentance and Faith, as is also clear from Peter's sermon in Acts chapter 2

Sinners are saved BY the Preaching of the True Gospel, which is worked on their hearts by the Holy Spirit in conviction, and their obeying His Work in them. Saving Faith does not "come from within us".

The verse that you quote from the KJV, is not what the Apostle Paul wrote, and has been changed

As Versions like the ESV, "But we ought always to give thanks to God for you, brothers beloved by the Lord, because God chose you as the firstfruits to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth", are indeed the correct

Paul is referring to the FIRST CONVERTS, as he says in 1 Cor. 15:20, 23; 16:15; Rom. 8:23; 16:5, etc.

 

Van, PLEASE stop posting NONSENSE about Greek grammar, as it is clear that you do NOT understand what you say!!!

 

can you show the "error" of the ESV in 2 Thessalonians 2:13?

 

can you show WHERE is the grammatical "error" in the ESV reading???

 

The Greek NOUN, σωτηρία, is translated as SAVED in the KJV, in Luke 1:71; Romans 10:1

The root meaning is "deliverance, preservation", and is also used for "means of safety, security" etc.

The VERB σῴζω, is also used in the SAME SENSE!

 

There are "rules" in Greek grammar, as there are in all languages in the world. However, these are also "exceptions" to these "rules".

One good example is found in John 20:28, where Thomas says to Jesus Christ, "Ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου" (my Lord and my God). The case in the Greek is nominative, which some assume as something that Thomas was "surprised" by, and his language is an "astonishment". However, we read in the immediate verse, "εἶπεν αὐτῷ" (said to Him), that is to Jesus Christ. Here we now have what is known as in Greek grammar, where the nominative is taken as "vocative", as in direct address. This is not uncommon in Koine Greek

We have the exact same use in Hebrews 1:8, "Ὁ θρόνος σου, ὁ θεός" (Your Throne O God), where the nominative form, is taken as vocative. This is also clear from the words, "πρὸς δὲ τὸν υἱόν", "but to the Son", which is also direct address by the Father.

The Hebrew scholar, Aquila, who published a Greek Version of the Old Testament, in the middle of the 2nd century A.D., translates the Hebrew, by the Greek, “ο θρονος σου θεε”, in Psalm 45:6, which is undoubtedly the vocative, “Your throne, O God”. (Fredrick Field, Origen Hexapla, vol. II, pp. 162-163). Which shows that the Hebrew is clearly understood as having the meaning of the vocative.

 

Gosh! Van, WHEN will you ever learn that your "reasoning" on Greek grammar is ZERO!