Featured What Difference Does It Make?

Uh....no. You are being foolish.

I am not denying your interpretation is possible, but you are ignoring facts to "prove" your interpretation the only possibility.

In his account (not of Genesis but of secular history) he uses the word to mean "only born" (a child born with no siblings).

Anhanasius uses the word to mean "begotten" as opposed to "adopted".

Hesiod uses the word to mean "sole born".


You have made up your mind without understanding the language, without reading history, without reading the conclusions of scholars who hold a different opinion....in other words, you made up your mind and put blinders on so you won't be distracted by facts.

You are willfully ignorant.

The truth is that the word can mean unique. It has been used this way in ancient writings concerning spices and trees.

BUT it has also been used to mean "only begotten". And it was used this way in ancient Greek writings before Christ was born, in the 1st century, and for centuries afterwards.

So both meanings are possible.

As it stands, you just want to put your fingers in your ears and close your eyes to prevent your ideas from being challenged by facts.

 

With μονογενης there are two main interpretations – it means “unique”, “one of a kind”, or it means “only begotten”.

Etymology

In support of the word meaning “only begotten”, the ending ενης commonly is used in compound words to indicate “begotten”. Some examples include αγεηνς (unnoble birth), δυσγενης (low born), ευγενης (well born), παλιγενης (born again), and πρωτογενης (first born).

So we know, without a doubt, that the ending ενης often means “begotten” (I am unaware of ενης being used to mean “kind” or “type”, but allow for that possibility.

Usage

The etymology of a word is only the first step in determining a word’s meaning. We also need to look at how the word is used, and the context in which this word is used.

Luke 7:12-13 - Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only (μονογενης) son of his mother, and she was a widow . . .

In this context, μονογενης means “only begotten” (the dead man was the only begotten son of his mother….not the unique son of his mother).

Luke 8:41-42 - And, behold, there came a man named Jairus, and he was a ruler of the synagogue: and he fell down at Jesus’ feet, and besought him that he would come into his house: for he had one only (μονογενης) daughter, about twelve years of age, and she lay a dying.

Again, here Jairus comes on behalf of his only begotten daughter (he only has one daughter, not a one of a kind daughter but he had begat only one daughter).

This is the same in John 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten (μονογενης) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Here Jesus is the only begotten of the Father (not the only unique of the Father, or the only one of a kind of the Father).

Anhanasius uses the word to mean "begotten" in contrast to adopted (a narutal born child).

Josephus uses the word to mean "begotten" in his historical secular genelogy.

Hesiod, in Theogony, uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Aesop uses the word to mean "only begotten child".

Aeschylus uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Scholarship

Charles Irons (Fuller Theological Seminary) argues that the word means “only begotten”. He notes that Plato (Critias) uses the Greek word to mean “only begotten”.

Bulman insistes that the word means “only begotten” because of the context. The context is generation. If the word means “unique” or “one of a kind” then it is an empty modifier and one must add to Scripture (“son” is implied in “begotten” but not in “unique”). He also notes that ενης refers to “generation” in other Greek words.

Thayer argues that the word refers to a descendent or child (regardless of gender), and therefore the appropriate interpretation is “only begotten”.

Büchsel interpreted the word to mean "only begotten" in the context "of sole descendent".

Dahms observes that when used in reference to persons the word always points to generation (begotten).

Bottom Line

The bottom line is that we cannot dismiss “only begotten” simply because we do not like it. It is a legitimate interpretation of the word. People cannot disprove this fact. They cannot prove an opposing position.

They can argue for an opposing position. They should argue an opposing position. But anything more is dishonest.

 

God gave His only begotten Son. "Only" in that there is no other. "Begotten" that the Word became flesh, was born of a woman, yet is also God.

Jesus is the only begotten Son, and the Firstborn of many who will be adopted.

 

The Word became flesh, was born to a woman, and is the only begotten Son (the Firstborn of many adopted children).

The "begotten" part means that Jesus is always God and this was not lost when He was born to Mary.

Why do you think Scripture calls Him the "Firstborn" (first-begotten)?

 

"Firstborn of many brothers" is not a title of preeminence.

 

I like reading the different interpretations.

I have no issue with "begotten" or the addition of "son" because they carry the same meaning (maybe not to us, but to the text) of generation.

Even those who prefer "one and only" or "unique" add "begotten" by adding "son".

The doctrine is the same either way.

 

The first born is always in a place of preeminence . Even with Essau (he sold that birthright).

But the verse says much more than that by adding "of many brethern". Here is where begotten clarifies where "son" doesn't.

Jesus is God's only begotten son (all Christians believe that). But there are other children of God, children by adoption.