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What Difference Does It Make?

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SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Some here have fallen into a word study fallacy. The only true way to find out the meaning of a word is to study the use of the word synchronically. I’ve mentioned previously that the word “nice”, if one does a word study as is often done on the BB, means “stupid”. The history of a word and it’s etymology do not determine a word’s meaning or use within a specific context.

With μονογενης there are two main interpretations – it means “unique”, “one of a kind”, or it means “only begotten”.

Part of the issue, and disagreement, involves its etymology. If this compound word (μονογ and ενης) is derived from monos (only) and genos (kind) then it means “unique”. If this word is derived from monos (only) and gennao (begat) then it means “only begotten”.

Unfortunately there is no consensus among scholars, and we cannot really know as a fact how the word originated.

Etymology

In support of the word meaning “only begotten”, the ending ενης commonly is used in compound words to indicate “begotten”. Some examples include αγεηνς (unnoble birth), δυσγενης (low born), ευγενης (well born), παλιγενης (born again), and πρωτογενης (first born).

So we know, without a doubt, that the ending ενης often means “begotten” (I am unaware of ενης being used to mean “kind” or “type”, but allow for that possibility.

Usage

The etymology of a word is only the first step in determining a word’s meaning. We also need to look at how the word is used, and the context in which this word is used.

Luke 7:12-13 - Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only (μονογενης) son of his mother, and she was a widow . . .

In this context, μονογενης means “only begotten” (the dead man was the only begotten son of his mother….not the unique son of his mother).

Luke 8:41-42 - And, behold, there came a man named Jairus, and he was a ruler of the synagogue: and he fell down at Jesus’ feet, and besought him that he would come into his house: for he had one only (μονογενης) daughter, about twelve years of age, and she lay a dying.

Again, here Jairus comes on behalf of his only begotten daughter (he only has one daughter, not a one of a kind daughter but he had begat only one daughter).

This is the same in John 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten (μονογενης) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Here Jesus is the only begotten of the Father (not the only unique of the Father, or the only one of a kind of the Father).

Scholarship

Charles Irons (Fuller Theological Seminary) argues that the word means “only begotten”. He notes that Plato (Critias) uses the Greek word to mean “only begotten”.

Bulman insistes that the word means “only begotten” because of the context. The context is generation. If the word means “unique” or “one of a kind” then it is an empty modifier and one must add to Scripture (“son” is implied in “begotten” but not in “unique”). He also notes that ενης refers to “generation” in other Greek words.

Thayer argues that the word refers to a descendent or child (regardless of gender), and therefore the appropriate interpretation is “only begotten”.

Bottom Line

The bottom line is that we cannot dismiss “only begotten” simply because we do not like it. It is a legitimate interpretation of the word. People cannot disprove this fact. They cannot prove an opposing position.

They can argue for an opposing position. They should argue an opposing position. But anything more is dishonest.

Bottom line is you are clutching at straws!

You tired to show Josephus meant only begotten, which is just wishful thinking.

Even the Unitarian Thayer in his Greek lexicon, does not support any idea of
begetting!

The Hebrew is also against this meaning as is the Greek LXX

All you are doing here is TRYING to make a case for what doesn't even exist :eek:
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Bottom line is you are clutching at straws!

You tired to show Josephus meant only begotten, which is just wishful thinking.

Even the Unitarian Thayer in his Greek lexicon, does not support any idea of
begetting!

The Hebrew is also against this meaning as is the Greek LXX

All you are doing here is TRYING to make a case for what doesn't even exist :eek:
Uh....no. You are being foolish.

I am not denying your interpretation is possible, but you are ignoring facts to "prove" your interpretation the only possibility.

In his account (not of Genesis but of secular history) he uses the word to mean "only born" (a child born with no siblings).

Anhanasius uses the word to mean "begotten" as opposed to "adopted".

Hesiod uses the word to mean "sole born".


You have made up your mind without understanding the language, without reading history, without reading the conclusions of scholars who hold a different opinion....in other words, you made up your mind and put blinders on so you won't be distracted by facts.

You are willfully ignorant.

The truth is that the word can mean unique. It has been used this way in ancient writings concerning spices and trees.

BUT it has also been used to mean "only begotten". And it was used this way in ancient Greek writings before Christ was born, in the 1st century, and for centuries afterwards.

So both meanings are possible.

As it stands, you just want to put your fingers in your ears and close your eyes to prevent your ideas from being challenged by facts.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
With μονογενης there are two main interpretations – it means “unique”, “one of a kind”, or it means “only begotten”.

Etymology

In support of the word meaning “only begotten”, the ending ενης commonly is used in compound words to indicate “begotten”. Some examples include αγεηνς (unnoble birth), δυσγενης (low born), ευγενης (well born), παλιγενης (born again), and πρωτογενης (first born).

So we know, without a doubt, that the ending ενης often means “begotten” (I am unaware of ενης being used to mean “kind” or “type”, but allow for that possibility.

Usage

The etymology of a word is only the first step in determining a word’s meaning. We also need to look at how the word is used, and the context in which this word is used.

Luke 7:12-13 - Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only (μονογενης) son of his mother, and she was a widow . . .

In this context, μονογενης means “only begotten” (the dead man was the only begotten son of his mother….not the unique son of his mother).

Luke 8:41-42 - And, behold, there came a man named Jairus, and he was a ruler of the synagogue: and he fell down at Jesus’ feet, and besought him that he would come into his house: for he had one only (μονογενης) daughter, about twelve years of age, and she lay a dying.

Again, here Jairus comes on behalf of his only begotten daughter (he only has one daughter, not a one of a kind daughter but he had begat only one daughter).

This is the same in John 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten (μονογενης) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Here Jesus is the only begotten of the Father (not the only unique of the Father, or the only one of a kind of the Father).

Anhanasius uses the word to mean "begotten" in contrast to adopted (a narutal born child).

Josephus uses the word to mean "begotten" in his historical secular genelogy.

Hesiod, in Theogony, uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Aesop uses the word to mean "only begotten child".

Aeschylus uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Scholarship

Charles Irons (Fuller Theological Seminary) argues that the word means “only begotten”. He notes that Plato (Critias) uses the Greek word to mean “only begotten”.

Bulman insistes that the word means “only begotten” because of the context. The context is generation. If the word means “unique” or “one of a kind” then it is an empty modifier and one must add to Scripture (“son” is implied in “begotten” but not in “unique”). He also notes that ενης refers to “generation” in other Greek words.

Thayer argues that the word refers to a descendent or child (regardless of gender), and therefore the appropriate interpretation is “only begotten”.

Büchsel interpreted the word to mean "only begotten" in the context "of sole descendent".

Dahms observes that when used in reference to persons the word always points to generation (begotten).

Bottom Line

The bottom line is that we cannot dismiss “only begotten” simply because we do not like it. It is a legitimate interpretation of the word. People cannot disprove this fact. They cannot prove an opposing position.

They can argue for an opposing position. They should argue an opposing position. But anything more is dishonest.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
With μονογενης there are two main interpretations – it means “unique”, “one of a kind”, or it means “only begotten”.

Etymology

In support of the word meaning “only begotten”, the ending ενης commonly is used in compound words to indicate “begotten”. Some examples include αγεηνς (unnoble birth), δυσγενης (low born), ευγενης (well born), παλιγενης (born again), and πρωτογενης (first born).

So we know, without a doubt, that the ending ενης often means “begotten” (I am unaware of ενης being used to mean “kind” or “type”, but allow for that possibility.

Usage

The etymology of a word is only the first step in determining a word’s meaning. We also need to look at how the word is used, and the context in which this word is used.

Luke 7:12-13 - Now when he came nigh to the gate of the city, behold, there was a dead man carried out, the only (μονογενης) son of his mother, and she was a widow . . .

In this context, μονογενης means “only begotten” (the dead man was the only begotten son of his mother….not the unique son of his mother).

Luke 8:41-42 - And, behold, there came a man named Jairus, and he was a ruler of the synagogue: and he fell down at Jesus’ feet, and besought him that he would come into his house: for he had one only (μονογενης) daughter, about twelve years of age, and she lay a dying.

Again, here Jairus comes on behalf of his only begotten daughter (he only has one daughter, not a one of a kind daughter but he had begat only one daughter).

This is the same in John 1:14 - And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten (μονογενης) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Here Jesus is the only begotten of the Father (not the only unique of the Father, or the only one of a kind of the Father).

Anhanasius uses the word to mean "begotten" in contrast to adopted (a narutal born child).

Josephus uses the word to mean "begotten" in his historical secular genelogy.

Hesiod, in Theogony, uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Aesop uses the word to mean "only begotten child".

Aeschylus uses the word to mean "only begotten".

Scholarship

Charles Irons (Fuller Theological Seminary) argues that the word means “only begotten”. He notes that Plato (Critias) uses the Greek word to mean “only begotten”.

Bulman insistes that the word means “only begotten” because of the context. The context is generation. If the word means “unique” or “one of a kind” then it is an empty modifier and one must add to Scripture (“son” is implied in “begotten” but not in “unique”). He also notes that ενης refers to “generation” in other Greek words.

Thayer argues that the word refers to a descendent or child (regardless of gender), and therefore the appropriate interpretation is “only begotten”.

Büchsel interpreted the word to mean "only begotten" in the context "of sole descendent".

Dahms observes that when used in reference to persons the word always points to generation (begotten).

Bottom Line

The bottom line is that we cannot dismiss “only begotten” simply because we do not like it. It is a legitimate interpretation of the word. People cannot disprove this fact. They cannot prove an opposing position.

They can argue for an opposing position. They should argue an opposing position. But anything more is dishonest.

What exactly do you mean by Jesus Christ as the Only Begotten?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
What exactly do you mean by Jesus Christ as the Only Begotten?
God gave His only begotten Son. "Only" in that there is no other. "Begotten" that the Word became flesh, was born of a woman, yet is also God.

Jesus is the only begotten Son, and the Firstborn of many who will be adopted.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Is Jesus Christ begotten as God?
The Word became flesh, was born to a woman, and is the only begotten Son (the Firstborn of many adopted children).

The "begotten" part means that Jesus is always God and this was not lost when He was born to Mary.

Why do you think Scripture calls Him the "Firstborn" (first-begotten)?
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
The Word became flesh, was born to a woman, and is the only begotten Son (the Firstborn of many adopted children).

The "begotten" part means that Jesus is always God and this was not lost when He was born to Mary.

Why do you think Scripture calls Him the "Firstborn" (first-begotten)?

on the Title πρωτότοκος for Jesus Christ, Paul tells us:

"He is the Image of the Invisible God, the Firstborn over all Creation. For in Him all things were Created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were Created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together. And He is the Head of the body, the Church, Who is The beginning, the Firstborn out of the dead, that in all things He may have the Preeminence"
(Colossians 1:15-18)

FIRSTBORN is a Title of PREEMINENCE which Jesus Christ has over all of Creation, as He is THE CREATOR, THE HEAD AND THE SUSTAINER

It most certain does NOT mean that Jesus Christ is as YHWH, in ANY WAY, "begotten" from the Father, even though some of the early Church creeds teach this heresy!

The same use for King David in Psalm 89:7

"I also shall make him My firstborn, The highest of the kings of the earth"

David was not the firstborn of Jessy!
 

37818

Well-Known Member
Why do you think Scripture calls Him the "Firstborn" (first-begotten)?
See Acts of the Apostles 13:33, . . . God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. . . .

And Colossians 1:18, . . . who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; . . .

Romans 8:29, . . . his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. . . .
 

37818

Well-Known Member
NASB: John 1:18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

KJV: John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
What I find interesting, the Tyndale House Greek New Testament Cambridge 2017 critical text edition favors the, ο μονογενης υιος, reading for John 1:18.
 

37818

Well-Known Member

EVIDENCE FOR THE READING "μονογενης θεος":

Manuscripts: (Greek)

The Codex P66 (about 200 A.D.)
The Codex P75 (early 3rd cent.)
The Codex Sinaticus (4th)
The Codex Vaticanus (4th)
The Codex Ephraemi (5th)
The Codex Regius (8th)
The minuscule manuscript 33 (9th)

Ancient Versions:

Diatessaron (2nd) - Armenian Edition
Apostolic Constitutions - (4th)
The Syriac Peshitta - (5th)
The Syriac Harklean - margin (7th)
The Ethiopic (6th) - Roman Edition

Patristic: (Early Christian Writers)

Irenaeus, Bishop of Lyons (A.D.130-200) - Greek
Clement of Alexandria (150-215) – Greek
Eusebius, Bishop of Caesarea (260-340) – Greek
Alexandria, Bishop of Alexander (died, 328) - Greek
Didymus the Blind, of Alexandria (313-398) - Greek
Hilary, Bishop of Poitiers (315-367) - Latin
Epiphanius of Salamis (315-403) - Greek
Basil, "the great" of Cappadocia (330-379) - Greek
Gregory of Nyssa (330-395) - Greek
Ambrosiaster, Rome and Spain (f.375) - Latin
Jerome (342-420) - Latin
Synesius, Bishop of Ptolemais (370-414) - Greek
Cyril of Alexander (died, 444) - Greek

Heretics:

Valentinus of Egypt (2nd cent)
Theodotus (2nd)
Ptolemy (2nd)
Heracleon (2nd)
Origen of Alexandria (185-254)
Arius of Alexandria (250-336)

THIS is what is called EVIDENCE!!!

Of the Greek mss evidence a mere 0.3%
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
on the Title πρωτότοκος for Jesus Christ, Paul tells us:

"He is the Image of the Invisible God, the Firstborn over all Creation. For in Him all things were Created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were Created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together. And He is the Head of the body, the Church, Who is The beginning, the Firstborn out of the dead, that in all things He may have the Preeminence"
(Colossians 1:15-18)

FIRSTBORN is a Title of PREEMINENCE which Jesus Christ has over all of Creation, as He is THE CREATOR, THE HEAD AND THE SUSTAINER

It most certain does NOT mean that Jesus Christ is as YHWH, in ANY WAY, "begotten" from the Father, even though some of the early Church creeds teach this heresy!

The same use for King David in Psalm 89:7

"I also shall make him My firstborn, The highest of the kings of the earth"

David was not the firstborn of Jessy!
"Firstborn of many brothers" is not a title of preeminence.
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Of the Greek mss evidence a mere 0.3%

manuscripts are only ONE part of the overall evidence!

Did you know that the reading accepted for the reading in Colossians 2:2 ending, τοῦ Θεοῦ Χριστοῦ, is only found in TWO Greek Mss.!

The Church Fathers are MUCH OLDER than your 99% so called "evidence", and they read GOD!
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
What I find interesting, the Tyndale House Greek New Testament Cambridge 2017 critical text edition favors the, ο μονογενης υιος, reading for John 1:18.
I like reading the different interpretations.

I have no issue with "begotten" or the addition of "son" because they carry the same meaning (maybe not to us, but to the text) of generation.

Even those who prefer "one and only" or "unique" add "begotten" by adding "son".

The doctrine is the same either way.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
ALL the FIRSTBORN references for Jesus Christ are PREEMINENCE!
The first born is always in a place of preeminence . Even with Essau (he sold that birthright).

But the verse says much more than that by adding "of many brethern". Here is where begotten clarifies where "son" doesn't.

Jesus is God's only begotten son (all Christians believe that). But there are other children of God, children by adoption.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
EVIDENCE FOR THE READING "μονογενης θεος":

Manuscripts: (Greek)

The Codex P66 (about 200 A.D.)
The Codex P75 (early 3rd cent.)
The Codex Sinaticus (4th)
The Codex Vaticanus (4th)
The Codex Ephraemi (5th)
The Codex Regius (8th)
The minuscule manuscript 33 (9th)

Ancient Versions:

Diatessaron (2nd) - Armenian Edition
Apostolic Constitutions - (4th)
The Syriac Peshitta - (5th)
The Syriac Harklean - margin (7th)
The Ethiopic (6th) - Roman Edition

Patristic: (Early Christian Writers)

Irenaeus, Bishop of Lyons (A.D.130-200) - Greek
Clement of Alexandria (150-215) – Greek
Eusebius, Bishop of Caesarea (260-340) – Greek
Alexandria, Bishop of Alexander (died, 328) - Greek
Didymus the Blind, of Alexandria (313-398) - Greek
Hilary, Bishop of Poitiers (315-367) - Latin
Epiphanius of Salamis (315-403) - Greek
Basil, "the great" of Cappadocia (330-379) - Greek
Gregory of Nyssa (330-395) - Greek
Ambrosiaster, Rome and Spain (f.375) - Latin
Jerome (342-420) - Latin
Synesius, Bishop of Ptolemais (370-414) - Greek
Cyril of Alexander (died, 444) - Greek

Heretics:

Valentinus of Egypt (2nd cent)
Theodotus (2nd)
Ptolemy (2nd)
Heracleon (2nd)
Origen of Alexandria (185-254)
Arius of Alexandria (250-336)

THIS is what is called EVIDENCE!!!
 
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