Printing errors is not perfect.
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Question on how KJVO Regard the 1611 Kjv?
- Thread starter JesusFan
- Start date
The KJV (NOT "KJB!) is NOT perfect ! It has many goofs & booboos, such as "Easter" in Acts 12:4. While that's far from the only goof in the KJV, it's one of the most easily-discerned, It's been discussed and proven many times in this page, so I'm not gonna discuss it again. but the kjv is far-from-perfect !
Blank
Active Member
Nor is the NIV, since we do not have the original manuscripts, the best we can hope for is 'the most accurate', which would be 'far from perfect'.
KJB1611reader
Member
Easter is right and translations can be perfect.
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
So why is exactly the same Greek word translated as "Passover" in every other verse in which it occurs? Why is this verse translated "Passover" in almost every other English translation of the bible, whether earlier or later than the 1611?
KJB1611reader
Member
Followed Bishop's and also to differinate between Jewish Passover and Easter.
Easter the pagan or Jewish all use same word; just like alch wine and grape juice.
Is not a error, whether its pagan or not.
Also, this word Easter occurs after Jesus rose again....
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
However, as I have just said somewhere else, the word "Easter" comes from the name of an Anglo-Saxon (false) goddess, Eostre. As the Anglo-Saxons weren't around before 400 AD, how could a pagan feast named after one of their goddesses appear in Acts, written by Luke in the 1st century AD?
KJB1611reader
Member
Since the rituals existed before them and then got its name?
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
What rituals? The rituals of the Anglo-Saxon goddess?
KJB1611reader
Member
No, Ichatar.
Similar about ressurection.
I don't have Enough knowledge to discuss more on this.
Many info online.
Again: its still Easter whether pagan or not. Not same day as Pssover and after Jesus rose again.
Shawn
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
Yes, but I go back to the Greek from which English New Testaments are translated. The Greek word means "Passover". Why would a word meaning "Passover" (a God-ordained festival of the Jews) suddenly change to mean a pagan feast day, whether Eostre, the Anglos-Saxon goddess, or Ischtar, a Babylonian and Assyrian goddess? I know Herod wasn't a godly man, but why would he be bothered about a Babylonian. Assyrian or Anglo-Saxon goddess's feast day? Sorry, I have just noticed that you don't want to discuss this anymore. I'll respect that, and not say any more.
KJB1611reader
Member
I can never seem to stop discussing this.
Also, how did Easter become a Christian Holy day?
Also, how did Easter become a Christian Holy day?
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
I don't know why Christians should use such a name. It is my understanding that we are not taught to celebrate the resurrection of Jesus Christ on one particular day in the year, but that Christians in New Testament times met for worship on the first day of the week, because that was the day Jesus arose from the dead. The apostle John actually calls it "The Lord's Day":
“I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s Day, and I heard behind me a loud voice, as of a trumpet,” (Re 1:10 NKJV)
KJB1611reader
Member
I don't think Lord's day in Revelation of St. John the Divine is Sunday.
My point is Easter is to differinate from Jewish Passover and Passover isn't on Sunday. Is not the same, and that's why its translated such. Its not an error.
I must stop discussing this.
Shawn
My point is Easter is to differinate from Jewish Passover and Passover isn't on Sunday. Is not the same, and that's why its translated such. Its not an error.
I must stop discussing this.
Shawn
David Lamb
Well-Known Member
I'll just thank you for the discussion then.
KJB1611reader
Member
No problem. Just don't want to go in circles and such.
Please take some time to research this and pray.
Shawn
Blank
Active Member
I don't see it as a necessary advantage to break away from the Jewish roots of the bible, just to be pagan.