Before I would begin studying another bible I would have to have the Greek and Hebrew definitions on hand. I would want to find out how they re-translated each word. What did they do with the Charis word for Grace or the Chara word for Joy for example.
Did you find out how the Church of England makers of the KJV re-translated or revised many words in the pre-1611 word of God in English?
It is a verifiable fact that the Church of England makers of the KJV borrowed several or even many renderings from the Roman Catholic 1582 Rheims New Testament, which is on the KJV-only view’s corrupt tree of Bibles. First-hand testimony and evidence from one of the KJV translators would acknowledge or affirm the use of the 1582 Rheims NT in the making of the KJV.
Ward Allen observed: "At Col. 2:18, he [KJV translator John Bois] explains that the [KJV] translators were relying up on the example of the Rheims Bible" (Bois,
Translating for King James, pp. 10, 62-63).
KJV defender Laurence Vance admitted that the 1582 “Rheims supplies the first half of the reading” in the KJV at Galatians 3:1 and that the “Rheims supplies the last half of the reading” at Galatians 3:16 (
Making of the KJV NT, p. 263). J. R. Dore wrote: "A very considerable number of the Rhemish renderings, which they introduced for the first time, were adopted by the revisers of King James's Bible of 1611" (
Old Bibles, p. 303). Jonathan Wheatley referred to “the unique words that originated in the KJB text from the Rheims 1582 New Testament” (
Unique Words, p. 329). Jonathan Wheatley commented: “Whilst even the idea that the KJB should feature any trace of such a corrupt Catholic, Latin-based text may be incomprehensible to some Bible believers, it does need recognition here” (
Ibid.).