Ephesians 2:8,9: A Simple Interpretation

I have read a view posts arguing on the basis of the Greek wording and meaning in defense of the Reformed position of Eph. 2:8, however, as important as word study may be, I think a correct understanding of this verse will be missed if we do not take verse 9 - “not as a result of works, so that no one may boast” - into consideration.

The phrase “that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God” is understood better in relation to verse 9, which would mean that which is not due to any works in relation to Law or as obtaining merit. Therefore, if this is a fair assessment of verse 8 and 9 taken together (and I believe it is), the phrase does not refer to “faith.”

It seems that the apostle is here arguing for a contrast primarily between “by grace” and “of works.” The antithesis Paul makes is always between “grace” and “works” or “faith and works,” but never between “grace” and “faith” (cf. Gal. 3:1-5; Romans 3:27,28; 11:6). Grace and faith are mutually complimentary NT ideas in opposition to works as that which obtains the divine favor.

The phrase “that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God” does not seem to refer to “grace” because it already contemplates that which is given unearned and freely. It’s redundant, like saying, “For by the gift of God you are saved through faith, and that gift of God is not earned by you as a result of good works; it is the gift of God”

This phrase also does not seem to refer to “faith” because the fact that salvation is “through faith” on our part necessarily makes it “by grace” on God’s part, and verse 9 seems to make a contrast, which cannot have any reference to faith (as noted above) but only to grace (Romans 3:27). Faith assumes grace as, conversely, grace assumes faith.

The above considerations lead me to conclude that within the phrase “that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,” the words “that” and “it” specifically refer to salvation itself: “ye have been saved.” Salvation is God’s gift because it is obtained “through faith” in God’s grace and not by works (verse 9); and, therefore, grace is the ultimate ground of our salvation as affirmed by the apostle Paul: "For by grace you have been saved."

 

Salvation is the obtaining of God's favor, i.e. grace; and it is obtained by faith. Yes, it is by faith.

I must, on the surface, agree with Ken that God does provide us with all that is necessary to obtain salvation but not in the manner taught under the Reformed tradition.

 

Note the context: "when we were dead in our transgressions, [God] made us alive together with Christ."

The emphasis is on the contrast between works (by the Law or that which is shown to be law in our conscience) and grace as the basis of salvation. If one thinks that his works are the basis of God's favor on him, that works effects merit, he should remember that God "made us alive" while we were "dead in our transgressions," i.e. God loved us while we were sinners and, as a result of that love, saved us. That is grace (cf. verse 4).

Faith, though not mentioned in the immediate context, is assumed. Remember, what I stated in my initial presentation, that the idea of grace assumes faith; it is the fact that it is "through (as a condition) faith" that makes salvation by grace. In verse 8, the apostle makes his intention clear.

Please note that in the verses discussed it is not God's grace "sovereignly extended," which is contemplated but rather such grace is pictured as mercifully and lovingly extended to sinners (verse 4).

If God's sovereignty is implied, it is seen is verse 6 where he has "raised us up" and "seated us" with Christ, yet, again, it is not His sovereignty that is central to the apostle's argument but the basis, nature, and goal by which He raised and seated us: "so that in the ages to come He might show the surpassing riches of His grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus" (verse 7). Nothing is said of demonstrating His sovereignty.

As mentioned earlier in other posts, the fundamental problem I see with Calvinism is that the the divine sovereignty takes center stage coloring their doctrines when God's love demonstrated on the Cross - the foolishness and weakness of the message of God - is what is central and permeates the whole of the Gospel.

From my perspective, no matter how you look at it, it is "very clear" that God's grace is that which is central to the apostle's understanding and instruction.

It is not God's sovereignty that demonstrates salvation is not of ourselves but God's grace.

[ June 15, 2002, 10:27 AM: Message edited by: Pastor Larry ]

 

If by man "can do nothing" you mean he cannot have faith in God, I disagree. It is not that man cannot do anything good but he cannot do anything good that would obtain God's favor.

I don't see where the Bible shows us that God drops faith in us. It is always shown as something that we do. That takes away no glory from God; He made us with the ability to fulfill his commands to repent and believe; he influences and intervenes in our lives to draw us to Himself but he does not do for us what He commands us to do.

But the Bible says otherwise: "while we were dead in our transgressions, [God] made us alive..." (cf. Rom. 5:6-10)

All is needed is one to show you are wrong. Isa. 55:1 (also related is Matt. 10:8; Mark 1:45)

On my part, I agree the message of the Gospel is a "simple interpretation;" I gently disagree that your interpretion is the correct interpretation.

 

The Bible affirms that “without faith it is impossible to please God,” therefore, I assert one obtains God’s favor by faith; it is the only thing that pleases God.

In the second quote, I meant to disagree with the interpretation that man being "dead in sin" means that he is incapable of believing. The verse has reference not to faith but to the works of the Law.

Faith may be described as a work (Jn. 6:29: Jesus argues his point using their terminology but in a different context) but it is a work in relation to grace; it is not of Law or that which earns God’s favor. “Man is not saved by works of the Law but by the work of believing” (The Gospel of John, pg. 141, by Robert E. Tourville).

Faith is conditional and instrumental to receiving salvation; it is not the basis for it. “…God does not require that we pile up merits to obtain a heavenly credit. He requires that we trust Him. The ‘work of God’ means that which God requires of us” (The Gospel According to John, Revised, pg. 319, by Leon Morris).

I hope that clears things up.

 

Ken, I agree the Bible is consistent within itself but it seems to me that your interpretation of what Paul and Jesus mean is not consistent with the text.

In these verses, Jesus' words here are not saying that man does not have the physical or moral ability to come to Christ as something impossible for him to do; he is merely saying that unless God initiates the search and directs him to the truth, man will not seek for Him or accept Him as truth.

Please note that what Jesus meant by "No man is able" can be derived from his words recorded later on in verses 64 and 65: "But there are some of you that believe not...Therefore, said I unto you that no man can come to me..."

What Jesus meant was that they cannot come to him because they refuse to believe. A person is unable to be drawn to Christ not because they are "passed over" and, as a result, have some form of inability that makes it impossible for them to believe, as the Reformed tradition teaches, but because they freely and willingly refuse to believe in Christ.

[ June 19, 2002, 11:49 AM: Message edited by: Nelson ]

 

You cannot intepret the verse 44 in isolation from the context (at least that is what many Calvinists advise). Therefore, my assertion that the objects of the Father's drawing are believers is taken from verses 29,35,36,40,47,64; the whole chapter explicates symbolically that faith required of those whom God draws.