Justin Nickelsen
New Member
"And he went and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled, 'He shall be called a Nazarene'."
--Matthew 2:23, RSV
Thoughts:
Matthew is writing to a Jewish audience that, we are usually led to assume, would be familar with his citations. This is why he goes out of his way to establish Chirst's messiahship with a lot of "fulfilled prophecy" references.
The interesting thing about this one is that it seems he isn't quoting any scripture.
There are a couple signs of this:
1. That quote isn't found anywhere in the OT.
2. The word "Nazareth" or "Nazarene" isn't found anywhere in the OT.
But more, not only is that quote not found in the OT, but it isn't found more than once, which would be proper to qualify Matthews pluarl use of the term "prophets".
So where did this come from?
Well, some people have tried to point to Isaiah 11:1 and pull out the words "Nazareth" etc. from there.
There are a couple problems with this:
1. You can't get those words from there. They aren't there. And "-nester" has nothing to do with it.
2. If Matthew had Isaiah in mind, he could have said so, as he did on 1:22-23, etc.
3. Let's say hypthetically that he DID have Is. 11:1 in mind. Then were are the rest of the references to fulfill the pluarl use of the term prophets?
--
My Take:
There are differing Catholic views on this subject, but mine is this...
Keeping in mind WHO he is writing to, and WHAT he is writing about... and keeping in mind the fact that his refernce is pluarl... that there is no source for it in the OT... and it is refered to, still though, as prophecy... and the other notes that I had...
I feel that we have a fulfillment or Oral Prophecy (e.g., Oral Tradition).
But not just that...
A Oral Prophecy that the Jews Matthew was writing to would have been familiar with, or he wouldn't have used it. Remember who is he writing to.
--
I am interested in Protestant takes on this. How would some of you guys see this interesting verse?
Peace,
Justin
coredemptrix@catholic.org
--Matthew 2:23, RSV
Thoughts:
Matthew is writing to a Jewish audience that, we are usually led to assume, would be familar with his citations. This is why he goes out of his way to establish Chirst's messiahship with a lot of "fulfilled prophecy" references.
The interesting thing about this one is that it seems he isn't quoting any scripture.
There are a couple signs of this:
1. That quote isn't found anywhere in the OT.
2. The word "Nazareth" or "Nazarene" isn't found anywhere in the OT.
But more, not only is that quote not found in the OT, but it isn't found more than once, which would be proper to qualify Matthews pluarl use of the term "prophets".
So where did this come from?
Well, some people have tried to point to Isaiah 11:1 and pull out the words "Nazareth" etc. from there.
There are a couple problems with this:
1. You can't get those words from there. They aren't there. And "-nester" has nothing to do with it.
2. If Matthew had Isaiah in mind, he could have said so, as he did on 1:22-23, etc.
3. Let's say hypthetically that he DID have Is. 11:1 in mind. Then were are the rest of the references to fulfill the pluarl use of the term prophets?
--
My Take:
There are differing Catholic views on this subject, but mine is this...
Keeping in mind WHO he is writing to, and WHAT he is writing about... and keeping in mind the fact that his refernce is pluarl... that there is no source for it in the OT... and it is refered to, still though, as prophecy... and the other notes that I had...
I feel that we have a fulfillment or Oral Prophecy (e.g., Oral Tradition).
But not just that...
A Oral Prophecy that the Jews Matthew was writing to would have been familiar with, or he wouldn't have used it. Remember who is he writing to.
--
I am interested in Protestant takes on this. How would some of you guys see this interesting verse?
Peace,
Justin
coredemptrix@catholic.org